Proof of an infinite product formula

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the proof of the infinite product formula \(\prod_{n=1}^{\infty} \left(1-\frac{q^2}{n^2} \right) = \frac{\sin(\pi q)}{\pi q}\). Participants explore various approaches to proving this identity, including references to complex analysis and specific textbooks.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant requests a proof of the infinite product formula, indicating a lack of resources or knowledge in complex analysis.
  • Another participant suggests that the formula can be found in good textbooks on complex analysis and notes that both sides of the equation are entire functions with coinciding zeros at integer values of \(q\).
  • A participant expresses unfamiliarity with the term "entire function" and questions whether the coincidence of zeros is sufficient to establish the identity, particularly regarding the specific factor \((\pi q)^{-1}\) on the right-hand side.
  • Another reply mentions that the identity can be proved as a special case of the Weierstrass factorization theorem or through contour integration, though both methods require knowledge of complex analysis.
  • A participant references a book that contains simpler proofs as exercises and outlines steps to show that \(f(z) = \pi \cot \pi z\) without using complex analysis techniques.
  • A later post reiterates the original request for proof and introduces related identities inspired by the infinite product formula, linking them to the multi zeta function.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants do not reach a consensus on the proof of the formula. There are multiple approaches suggested, and some participants express uncertainty about the sufficiency of the arguments presented.

Contextual Notes

Some participants highlight limitations in their understanding of complex analysis, which may affect their ability to engage with the proofs discussed. There is also a mention of the need for specific mathematical knowledge to follow the outlined proofs.

Omri
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Hi,

I am looking for a proof of the following formula:

[tex]\prod_{n=1}^{\infty} \left(1-\frac{q^2}{n^2} \right) = \frac{\sin(\pi q)}{\pi q}[/tex]

Does anyone know where to find such a proof?

Thanks :smile:
 
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In any good textbook on Complex Analysis. Observe that both the left and the right hand side of your equation is an entire function of q (considered as a complex variable) and that the zeroes of both side coincide, more precisely the zeros are exactly the integers.

The theorem is called http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Weierstrass_factorization_theorem"
 
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First I must confess that I have never heard of the term "entire function" or about the factorization theorem. This is probably because I don't know everything about complex analysis, and have never taken a real university course in the subject (hence I wouldn't have a good textbook...). I only know about it from my tutor, who taught me the basics, and now he asked me to find a proof of the product above.

It is indeed easily seen that the zeros of both sides coincide, and that they are indeed the cases where q is an integer. But is that enough? And also, that factor (pi*q)^-1 on the right-hand side has now effect on the zeros, so in general I could have replaced it with any other numeric factor. Why should it be this specific one?

Thanks a lot for you help.
 
This can be proved as a special case of the http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Weierstrass_factorization_theorem" , or more directly by contour integration. However, that requires complex analysis.

A book I have (An introduction to the theory of the Riemann Zeta-Function by S.J. Patterson) contains a couple of simple proofs, given as exercises. They in fact prove
[tex] \pi\cot\pi z=z^{-1}+\sum_{n>0}2z/(z^2-n^2)[/tex]
which is just the http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Logarithmic_derivative" of the identity you state.


The first proof only requires knowing that the only bounded entire functions (i.e. differentiable functions on the complex plane) are the constant functions, whereas the second doesn't require any complex analysis). I'll write it out as it appears in the book and let you work through the details of the proofs yourself.

1.12 Show that
[tex] f(z)=z^{-1}+\sum_{n>0}2z/(z^2-n^2)[/tex]
can be expressed as
[tex] f(z)=\lim_{N\rightarrow\infty}\sum_{n=-N}^N(z-n)^{-1}.[/tex]
Deduce that
[tex] f(z+1)=f(z).[/tex]
Show also that if |Im(z)|>4 then |f(z)|<5. Conclude that
[tex] f(z)-\pi\cot\pi z[/tex]
is a constant. Finally show that this constant is zero.

And, the second proof.

1.13 Show that with f as in Exercise 1.12
[tex] \begin{align*}<br /> f(z)^2=&z^{-2}+\sum_{n>0}\left\{4z^2(z^2-n^2)^{-2}+4(z^2-n^2)^{-1}\right\}\\<br /> & +4z^2\sum_{\substack{m,n>0\\ m\not=n}}(z^2-n^2)^{-1}(z^2-m^2)^{-1}\\<br /> =& z^{-2}+\sum_{n>0}\left\{4z^2(z^2-n^2)^{-2}+4(z^2-n^2)^{-1}\right\}\\<br /> & - 8z^2\sum_{n>0}(z^2-n^2)^{-1}\sum_{\substack{m>0\\ m\not=n}}(m^2-n^2)^{-1}.<br /> \end{align*}[/tex]
Show that
[tex] \sum_{\substack{m>0\\ m\not=n}}(m^2-n^2)^{-1}=3/4n^2[/tex]
and deduce that
[tex] f^\prime(z)=-f(z)^2-6\sum_{n\ge 1}n^{-2}.[/tex]
Finally prove that
[tex] f(z)=\pi\cot\pi z[/tex]
and
[tex] \sum_{n>0}n^{-2}=\pi^2/6.[/tex]
(This argument, which avoids the techniques of complex analysis and Fourier theory, is due to Eisenstein).
 
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Omri said:
Hi,

I am looking for a proof of the following formula:

[tex]\prod_{n=1}^{\infty} \left(1-\frac{q^2}{n^2} \right) = \frac{\sin(\pi q)}{\pi q}[/tex]

Does anyone know where to find such a proof?

Thanks :smile:


I found this thread and I just wanted to say that this identity inspired me to find these identities:
  • [tex]- \frac{\pi ^2}{3!} = \displaystyle \sum_{j_1=1}^{\infty} -j_1^{-2}[/tex]
  • [tex]\frac{\pi ^4}{5!} = \displaystyle \sum_{j_1,j_2=1 \atop j_1 \neq j_2}^{\infty} (j_1j_2)^{-2}[/tex]
  • [tex]- \frac{\pi ^6}{7!} = \displaystyle \sum_{j_1,j_2,j_3=1 \atop j_i \neq j_k} - (j_1j_2j_3)^{-2}[/tex]
  • [tex]\vdots[/tex]
  • [tex]\frac{\pi ^{2n}}{(2n+1)!} = \displaystyle \sum_{j_1,...j_n=1 \atop j_i \neq j_k}^{\infty} (j_1j_2...j_n)^{-2}[/tex]
  • [tex]\vdots[/tex]

I explain how at my math blog http://www.futurebird.com/?p=156

It turns out these sums are something called the multi zeta function... Neat, no?
 

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