Dismiss Notice
Join Physics Forums Today!
The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

Proof of the Pythagorean theorem using Dimensional analysis

  1. Sep 4, 2011 #1
    Last edited by a moderator: Apr 26, 2017
  2. jcsd
  3. Sep 4, 2011 #2


    User Avatar
    Science Advisor

    Yes, it is. However, just taking that "40000" into the function, f, gets you right back to the original form. They are only saying that the area is equal to the largest edge, squared, times some function of the two angles. Since that function is left undetermined, constants don't matter.
Share this great discussion with others via Reddit, Google+, Twitter, or Facebook