Proof that commuting operators have a shared base of eigenfunctions

Click For Summary

Discussion Overview

The discussion centers on the relationship between commuting operators in quantum mechanics, specifically whether two operators, A and B, that commute (AB = BA) necessarily have a common set of eigenfunctions. The focus is on the implications of assuming a non-degenerate spectrum and the challenges posed by degeneracy in quantum systems.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested
  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants assert that the proof of the equivalence between commuting operators and a shared base of eigenfunctions is valid only under the assumption of a non-degenerate spectrum.
  • One participant questions the validity of this assumption in the context of quantum mechanics, where degeneracy is common, and seeks a more general proof.
  • Another participant suggests that viewing degenerate eigenspaces as vectors in terms of equivalence classes may mitigate concerns about the assumption of non-degeneracy.
  • A participant references a previous thread where they provided a proof and received similar objections regarding degeneracy, indicating ongoing discussion about this topic.
  • One participant proposes using spectral decomposition as a method to show that commuting operators can be analyzed through their projection operators, suggesting a pathway to demonstrate the relationship without assuming non-degeneracy.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the implications of degeneracy in the context of commuting operators. There is no consensus on whether the assumption of a non-degenerate spectrum is necessary or how it affects the validity of the proof.

Contextual Notes

The discussion highlights limitations related to the assumptions made in proofs concerning operator commutation and eigenfunction bases, particularly in the presence of degeneracy. The mathematical steps and definitions involved in spectral decomposition are also noted but remain unresolved.

jakotaco
Messages
2
Reaction score
0
I have been told that if we have two operators, A and B, such that AB = BA then this is equivalent with that A and B have a common base of eigenfunctions.

However, the proof given was made under the assumption that the operators had a non-degenerate spectrum. Now I understand that one rather wants to give a short proof under some simplified condition and hope people will take your word that it applies without those simplifications. But in quantum mechanics, it is not as if degeneracy is uncommon.

So, does anyone know how to prove it more generally? Or maybe an explanation why the assumption isn't as bad as I though?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
jakotaco said:
I have been told that if we have two operators, A and B, such that AB = BA then this is equivalent with that A and B have a common base of eigenfunctions.

However, the proof given was made under the assumption that the operators had a non-degenerate spectrum. Now I understand that one rather wants to give a short proof under some simplified condition and hope people will take your word that it applies without those simplifications. But in quantum mechanics, it is not as if degeneracy is uncommon.

So, does anyone know how to prove it more generally? Or maybe an explanation why the assumption isn't as bad as I though?

If you search back through this forum for recent weeks, you'll find another thread
where I gave a proof - and got the same objection about degeneracy. Someone else
added the extra detail.

Personally, I don't think it's all that bad, since one can regard the degenerate
eigenspaces as vectors if you think more abstractly in terms of equivalence classes.
Others may find this a bit distasteful, however.
 
ok, thanks I found this thread by browsing your post history: https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=417407

This is the step I am unsure about

strangerep said:
<br /> H (A |n\rangle) ~=~ \lambda_n (A |n\rangle) ~.<br />

Therefore, (A |n\rangle) is an eigenvector of H with eigenvalue \lambda_n
and hence is proportional to |n\rangle. (This follows because all the
eigenvectors are mutually orthogonal.) So we have:

<br /> A |n\rangle ~\propto~ |n\rangle ~.<br />

But I will try giving it some more thought, reading some of the similar threads on this forum and see if it comes more clearly.
 
One way of doing it is by spectral decomposition:

A=\sum a_n P_n

B=\sum b_n Q_n

where a_n,b_n are eigenvalues and P_n,Q_n are projection operators on eigenspaces of A and B resp. Then it is an easy exercise to show that A and B commute if an only if all P_n and Q_m commute. If so, then

P_nQ_m are also projections and we have orthogonal sum

\sum_{m,n}P_nQ_m=I.

You then take any orthonormal basis from vectors contained in P_nQ_m subspaces and you are done one way. The other way is easy.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
3K
Replies
3
Views
4K
  • · Replies 25 ·
Replies
25
Views
18K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
3K
  • · Replies 18 ·
Replies
18
Views
10K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
4K
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
8K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
1K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
1K