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jakotaco

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However, the proof given was made under the assumption that the operators had a non-degenerate spectrum. Now I understand that one rather wants to give a short proof under some simplified condition and hope people will take your word that it applies without those simplifications. But in quantum mechanics, it is not as if degeneracy is uncommon.

So, does anyone know how to prove it more generally? Or maybe an explanation why the assumption isn't as bad as I though?