Proof that if cos(x+y)=cos(x), then y=2*pi*k?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the mathematical property of the cosine function, specifically the condition that if cos(x+y) = cos(x), then what can be concluded about y. Participants are seeking a formal proof and exploring the implications of this relationship, including potential forms of y.

Discussion Character

  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant recalls that the cosine function has a periodicity of 2πk for integer k and suggests that if cos(x+y) = cos(x), then y should be of the form 2πk.
  • Another participant questions the definitions of cosine and pi, asking for clarification on what can be assumed known in the discussion.
  • A different participant argues that the implication does not hold exclusively, noting that cos(x) = cos(-x) and providing a more general form for y, which includes both y = 2πk and y = -2x + 2πk.
  • One participant acknowledges that if y is considered a constant, then it could only be in the form of 2πk for all values of x, suggesting that the original statement may have merit.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the implications of the cosine property, with some supporting the idea that y must be of the form 2πk, while others argue for additional forms of y, indicating that the discussion remains unresolved.

Contextual Notes

There are limitations regarding the assumptions made about the definitions of cosine and pi, as well as the treatment of y as a constant versus a variable dependent on x.

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Recently I remembered a property of cosine that I learned in high school, namely that the cosine function repeats every 2[itex]\pi[/itex]k times for every integer k. I was told that naturally, then, if cos(x+y)=cos(x), then y is of the form 2[itex]\pi[/itex]k, where k is an integer. However, I was looking for a formal proof of this. Can someone help me out? Thanks.
 
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What is your definition of cosine and of pi?? What can we assume known??
 
suckmyfish1 said:
Recently I remembered a property of cosine that I learned in high school, namely that the cosine function repeats every 2[itex]\pi[/itex]k times for every integer k. I was told that naturally, then, if cos(x+y)=cos(x), then y is of the form 2[itex]\pi[/itex]k, where k is an integer. However, I was looking for a formal proof of this. Can someone help me out? Thanks.

The described implication does not hold exclusively because [itex]cos(x) = cos(-x) = cos(x-2x)[/itex] for any x. As [itex]cos(z) = cos(w)[/itex] only when [itex]z[/itex] and [itex]w[/itex] are at the same x-coordinate of the unit circle we have [itex]z = \pm w + 2\pi k[/itex]. In the quoted case it is [itex]x = \pm (x+y) \rightarrow y = 2\pi k \vee y = -2x + 2\pi k[/itex].
 
Last edited:
suckmyfish1 said:
Recently I remembered a property of cosine that I learned in high school, namely that the cosine function repeats every 2[itex]\pi[/itex]k times for every integer k. I was told that naturally, then, if cos(x+y)=cos(x), then y is of the form 2[itex]\pi[/itex]k, where k is an integer. However, I was looking for a formal proof of this. Can someone help me out? Thanks.

[itex]cos(a) = cos(b) \text{ iff } a = b + 2\pi k \text{ or } a = -b + 2\pi k[/itex]

Therefore, [itex]cos(x) = cos(x+y) \text{ iff } x = (x + y) + 2\pi k \text{ or } x = -(x+y) + 2\pi k[/itex].

This reduces to [itex]y = + 2\pi k \text{ or } y = -2x + 2\pi k[/itex].

This proves that your friend's statement was incomplete, as y could be in the form of -2x+2πk as well

----

Edit: Although, if one considers y as a constant (as opposed to a function of x), then y could only be in the form of 2πk and work for all values of x. Maybe your friend was on the something after all :p
 

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