Proof using the closed graph theorem

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving that a sequence x is square summable using the Closed Graph Theorem in functional analysis. The operator Tx: y → xy, where the product is entrywise, is shown to have a closed graph. This is established by demonstrating that convergence in any ℓp space implies entrywise convergence, leading to the conclusion that if Tx is closed, then it is bounded, confirming that x is square summable.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of functional analysis concepts, particularly the Closed Graph Theorem.
  • Familiarity with sequence spaces ℓ1 and ℓ2.
  • Knowledge of absolute and square summability of sequences.
  • Proficiency in handling limits and convergence in mathematical analysis.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the Closed Graph Theorem in detail to understand its implications in functional analysis.
  • Learn about the properties of sequence spaces, particularly ℓp spaces.
  • Explore examples of bounded linear operators and their closed graphs.
  • Investigate the relationship between absolute summability and square summability in sequences.
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, particularly those specializing in functional analysis, graduate students studying advanced mathematics, and anyone interested in the properties of sequence spaces and bounded operators.

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Hi,

I'm stuck on a problem in functional analysis. Let x be a sequence on the Natural nummers such that for any square summable sequence y, the product sequence xy is absolutely summable. Then x is square summable.

Hint : Use the Closed graph theorem.

If I can prove the map Tx : y -> xy had a closed graph then It Follows from the Closed graph theorem that Tx is bounded and therefore that x is square summable, but I can't seem to show that the graph is Closed. Am I following the right path? Any hints?Thanks
 
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Yes, you are on the right path. You need to show that your operator ##T_x:\ell^2\to\ell^1##, ##T_x y = xy##, where the product means entrywise product is closed. This fact is very simple, almost a triviality: it follows from the fact that convergence in any ##\ell^p## implies the entry wise convergence.

Let me explain; to avoid mess with double indices, I'll use the "functional notation" for sequences, i.e. a sequence ##x## will be ##x=(x(1), x(2), \ldots)##. Since ##|y(k)| \le \|y\|_{\ell^p}## (for all ##k## and ##p##) we conclude that if ##\|y_n-y\|_{\ell^2} \to 0## then $$\lim_{n\to\infty} y_n(k) = y(k)$$ for all ##k##. Similarly, if additionally ##\|x y_n -z\|_{\ell^1}\to 0## then for all ##k## $$\lim_{n\to\infty} x (k)y_n(k) =z(k).$$ But on the other hand we already know that ##\lim_{n\to\infty} y_n(k) = y(k)##, so $$\lim_{n\to\infty} x (k)y_n(k) =x(k)y(k),$$ which means that ##z=xy##.

So the operator ##T_x## is closed.
 
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As is so often the case with mathematics,the solution to the problem seems so obvious once it is known. This concludes for me a few days of staring at a blank page.

Thank You, Hawkeye. You saved me a lot of time.
 

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