Prove Derivatives of All Orders Exist for g(x)

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around proving that the function g(x) = e^{-1/x} for x > 0 and g(x) = 9 for x ≤ 0 has derivatives of all orders at x = 0. Participants explore the limits of the difference quotient and the behavior of the function as x approaches 0.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant expresses uncertainty about the existence of the limit of the difference quotient from the right as x approaches 0, noting that Maple indicates the limit is undefined.
  • Another participant provides a transformation of the limit expression, suggesting that as x approaches 0, the exponential term approaches 0, which may support the claim of derivative existence.
  • A participant discusses the manipulation of the expression -2ln(x) - 1/x and its behavior as x approaches 0, indicating a need for further clarification on how to derive the limit.
  • One participant proposes using l'Hôpital's rule to evaluate the limit, suggesting that the limit does indeed approach zero.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the behavior of the limit as x approaches 0, with some suggesting it approaches zero while others remain uncertain about the correctness of their approaches. The discussion does not reach a consensus on the existence of derivatives of all orders at x = 0.

Contextual Notes

Participants note various mathematical transformations and limits, but there are unresolved aspects regarding the manipulation of logarithmic and exponential terms, as well as the application of l'Hôpital's rule.

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Let [itex]g(x)=e^{-\frac{1}{x}} for x > 0[/itex] and [itex]g(x)=9 for x \le 0[/itex]. I want to prove that derivatives of all orders exist.

Now I know that the only possible problem is at 0. The limit of the difference quotient from the left is obviously going to be 0. The limit from the right is going to be [itex]\frac{1}{x^2}e^{-\frac{1}{x}}[/itex].

But I don't see how this limit exists.

edit: I just checked on maple and it says the limit as x->0 of the above derivative is undefined. What am I doing wrong?

Also, I figure I'm going to use induction to prove f^n, but I can't even get the case where n=1.
 
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x-2e-1/x=e-2ln(x)-1/x.

The exponent ->-oo, so the exponential goes to 0. This will be true for any inverse power of x as a coefficient.
 
ex-xian said:
Let [itex]g(x)=e^{-\frac{1}{x}} for x > 0[/itex] and [itex]g(x)=9 for x \le 0[/itex]
edit: I just checked on maple and it says the limit as x->0 of the above derivative is undefined. What am I doing wrong?

Taking the limit from both sides, when the above expression is only the correct value for f one side.
 
mathman said:
x-2e-1/x=e-2ln(x)-1/x.

The exponent ->-oo, so the exponential goes to 0. This will be true for any inverse power of x as a coefficient.

Can you elaborate? As x goes to 0, -2ln(x)-1/x gives the indeterminate oo-oo. I don't see how to manipulate it to get -oo.

DeadWolfe said:
Taking the limit from both sides, when the above expression is only the correct value for f one side.
I already know the left side derivative is 0. I just need to show the right side is also 0.
 
-2ln(x)-1/x=(-2xln(x)-1)/x.
Since xln(x)->0 as x->0, my assertion follows.
 
[tex]\lim_{x\rightarrow 0}\frac{1}{x^2}e^{-\frac{1}{x}}[/tex]

To evaluate this, let [tex]y=\frac{1}{x}[/tex] and then you have

[tex]\lim_{x\rightarrow 0}\frac{1}{x^2}e^{-\frac{1}{x}}=\lim_{y\rightarrow \infty}y^2 e^{-y}=\lim_{y\rightarrow \infty}\frac{y^2}{ e^{y}}[/tex]

Which I think you can see does go to zero. If you still need something even more solid, you can use l'Hopital's rule twice for the y limit
 

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