MHB Prove/Disprove: $I+J$ and $I\cap J$ are Ideals of $A$

  • Thread starter Thread starter Krizalid1
  • Start date Start date
Krizalid1
Messages
106
Reaction score
0
Let $I$ and $J$ be ideals of a ring $A.$ Are $I+J$ and $I\cap J$ ideals of $A$?
 
Mathematics news on Phys.org
More general. Let $\{I_j:j\in J\}$ be a family of ideals of a ring $A$. Are $\displaystyle\sum_{j\in J}I_j$ and $\displaystyle\bigcap_{j\in J}I_j$ ideals of $A$?
 
This is merely matter of working through the definitions.

For example, let [math]r,r' \in I+J[/math]. This means that:

[math]r = x + y, r' = x' + y', x,x' \in I, y,y' \in J[/math].

So [math]r - r' = (x + y) - (x' + y') = (x - x') + (y - y') \in I+J[/math],

since [math]I,J[/math] are both ideals of [math]A[/math] (and thus additive subgroups).

This shows [math]I+J[/math] is an additive subgroup of [math](A,+)[/math].

Now let [math]a \in A[/math] be any element. We have:

[math]ar = a(x + y) = ax + ay \in I + J[/math], because [math]I,J[/math] are both IDEALS.

The proof that [math]ra \in I + J[/math] is similar, and left to the reader.

This proof clearly generalizes to any family of ideals indexed by a FINITE set. The infinite case has some complications better off discussed elsewhere.

A similar approach works for [math]I \cap J[/math]. It should be clear that [math]I \cap J[/math] is an additive subgroup of [math]A[/math]. I hope you can see how to prove that for any:

[math] a \in A, r \in I \cap J[/math] that [math] ar,ra \in I \cap J[/math].
 
Insights auto threads is broken atm, so I'm manually creating these for new Insight articles. In Dirac’s Principles of Quantum Mechanics published in 1930 he introduced a “convenient notation” he referred to as a “delta function” which he treated as a continuum analog to the discrete Kronecker delta. The Kronecker delta is simply the indexed components of the identity operator in matrix algebra Source: https://www.physicsforums.com/insights/what-exactly-is-diracs-delta-function/ by...
Fermat's Last Theorem has long been one of the most famous mathematical problems, and is now one of the most famous theorems. It simply states that the equation $$ a^n+b^n=c^n $$ has no solutions with positive integers if ##n>2.## It was named after Pierre de Fermat (1607-1665). The problem itself stems from the book Arithmetica by Diophantus of Alexandria. It gained popularity because Fermat noted in his copy "Cubum autem in duos cubos, aut quadratoquadratum in duos quadratoquadratos, et...
I'm interested to know whether the equation $$1 = 2 - \frac{1}{2 - \frac{1}{2 - \cdots}}$$ is true or not. It can be shown easily that if the continued fraction converges, it cannot converge to anything else than 1. It seems that if the continued fraction converges, the convergence is very slow. The apparent slowness of the convergence makes it difficult to estimate the presence of true convergence numerically. At the moment I don't know whether this converges or not.

Similar threads

Back
Top