Prove Eigenvalue λ=0 is Only Solution to Ax=0 for All x

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    Eigenvalue Proof
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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the assertion that if λ=0 is the only eigenvalue of a matrix A, then Ax=0 for all x. Participants explore the implications of this statement, examining definitions and conditions related to eigenvalues and eigenvectors.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested
  • Technical explanation
  • Conceptual clarification

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants question the validity of the assertion, citing examples of matrices with λ=0 that do not yield Ax=0 for all x.
  • One participant suggests that the definition of the eigenvalue problem implies Ax=0 when λ=0, but this is challenged by others.
  • Another participant emphasizes the need for A to be a non-singular matrix for the original claim to hold, while others argue that singular matrices can also have λ=0.
  • There is a discussion about the existence of a complete set of eigenvectors and how it relates to the assertion, with some arguing that without such a set, Ax may not equal zero for all x.
  • One participant mentions the concept of nilpotent matrices in relation to the problem, suggesting that the matrix must be singular and nilpotent if λ=0 is the only eigenvalue.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express disagreement regarding the initial assertion, with multiple competing views on the conditions under which Ax=0 holds true. The discussion remains unresolved, with no consensus reached on the implications of the eigenvalue being zero.

Contextual Notes

Participants highlight limitations in the assumptions about the matrix A, particularly regarding its singularity and the completeness of eigenvectors, which are not explicitly defined in the original question.

AsprngMathGuy
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Hey everyone,

I have a problem with over thinking things quite often, so I once again need help haha.
How would you go about proving this:

λ=0 is the only eigenvalue of A [itex]\Rightarrow[/itex] Ax=0 [itex]\forall[/itex]x

Any help would be appreciated!
Thanks
 
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Are you sure it's true? The matrix
[tex] A = \left [\begin{array}{ccc}<br /> 0 & 1 & 1 \\<br /> 0 & 0 & 1 \\<br /> 0 & 0 & 0 \\<br /> \end{array} \right ] [/tex]
has [itex]\lambda = 0[/itex] with multiplicity 3. Multiplying [itex]A[/itex] by the ones vector does not, however, yield the zero vector.

Perhaps you left out some constraints on [itex]A[/itex]?
 
AsprngMathGuy said:
Hey everyone,

I have a problem with over thinking things quite often, so I once again need help haha.
How would you go about proving this:

λ=0 is the only eigenvalue of A [itex]\Rightarrow[/itex] Ax=0 [itex]\forall[/itex]x

Any help would be appreciated!
Thanks

Hey AsprngMathGuy and welcome to the forums.

The result can be shown from the definition of the eigenvalue problem where you have:

[itex]Ax = λx[/itex] which implies [itex](Ax - Iλx) = 0[/itex]

If all your λ's are zero then the above reduces to [itex]Ax - 0*Ix = 0[/itex] which gives us [itex]Ax=0[/itex]. This only uses the definition of the eigenvalue problem and you simply plug in the value for λ to get your equation.
 
robertsj said:
Are you sure it's true? The matrix
[tex] A = \left [\begin{array}{ccc}<br /> 0 & 1 & 1 \\<br /> 0 & 0 & 1 \\<br /> 0 & 0 & 0 \\<br /> \end{array} \right ] [/tex]
has [itex]\lambda = 0[/itex] with multiplicity 3. Multiplying [itex]A[/itex] by the ones vector does not, however, yield the zero vector.

Perhaps you left out some constraints on [itex]A[/itex]?

That is not correct.

You have to change your matrix to this:

[tex] A = \left [\begin{array}{ccc}<br /> -λ & 1 & 1 \\<br /> 0 & -λ & 1 \\<br /> 0 & 0 & -λ \\<br /> \end{array} \right ] [/tex] when you factor in the -λI term.

It still gives you zero (like you said above), but substituting in λ in your equation will give you Ax = 0.

You have to remember that you are solving an eigenvalue problem, and in doing this you want to usually assume your A is a non-singular matrix. In your example your A is a singular matrix and this will be useless.

The idea with an eigenvalue problem is that you want to find what x gets 'scaled' in a linearly dependent way from your matrix A, which will help you decompose it into the eigenvectors by analyzing where the scaling happens.
 
Perhaps Chiro is misunderstanding the question. A, given by robertsj, is, in fact, an example of matrix having only A as eigenvalue but such that Ax is not always 0.

IF there exist a basis for the vector space consisting of all eigenvectors (a "complete set of eigenvectors" so that A is diagonalizale) then Ax= 0 for all x. But in general, there may not exist such a set of eigenvectors. There will be some subspace such that Ax= 0 for all x in that subspace. In robersj's example, that would be the subspace of vectors <1, 0, 0>.
 
True HallsofIvy. Can't see the point for doing an eigendecomposition when you have no eigenvectors or can't find them.
 
chiro: you're absolutely right if A were to be invertible, but that would be an unspecified constraint on A. As for assuming a nonsingular matrix, I work all the time with a method dealing with singular operators.
 
robertsj said:
chiro: you're absolutely right if A were to be invertible, but that would be an unspecified constraint on A. As for assuming a nonsingular matrix, I work all the time with a method dealing with singular operators.

What kind of problems? Just curious.
 
robertsj said:
chiro: you're absolutely right if A were to be invertible, but that would be an unspecified constraint on A.


*** Not only "unspecified constraint" but also nonsensical: a (square, of course) matrix is singular iff zero is one of its eigenvalues, so

in your problem A must be singular and, in fact, nilpotent.

DonAntonio ***



As for assuming a nonsingular matrix, I work all the time with a method dealing with singular operators.

...
 
  • #10
Thank you so much for your input. I actually misread the problem slightly. At the beginning it states to prove OR disprove the problem. So of course my mind goes right to attempting to prove it haha. Thanks!
 

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