Prove Inequality for $0<x<\dfrac{\pi}{2}$: Math Challenge

  • Context: MHB 
  • Thread starter Thread starter anemone
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Challenge Inequality
Click For Summary
SUMMARY

For the interval $0\left(\dfrac{\sin x}{x}\right)^2$ holds true. The proof involves utilizing the infinite product representation of $\dfrac{\sin x}{x}$ and deriving inequalities that lead to the conclusion. Specifically, it is shown that $(\frac{\sin x}{x})^{2} < (1 - \frac{x^{2}}{\pi^{2}})^{2}$ and that $(1 - \frac{x^{2}}{\pi^{2}})(1 + \frac{x^{2}}{\pi^{2}}) < 1$. This mathematical challenge has been successfully solved by multiple participants in the discussion.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of inequalities in calculus
  • Familiarity with the sine function and its properties
  • Knowledge of infinite products in mathematical analysis
  • Basic proficiency in manipulating algebraic expressions
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the infinite product representation of trigonometric functions
  • Learn about proving inequalities using calculus techniques
  • Explore the implications of the Weierstrass product theorem
  • Investigate other inequalities involving trigonometric functions
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, students studying calculus, and anyone interested in advanced inequality proofs will benefit from this discussion.

anemone
Gold Member
MHB
POTW Director
Messages
3,851
Reaction score
115
For $0<x<\dfrac{\pi}{2}$, prove that $\dfrac{\pi^2-x^2}{\pi^2+x^2}>\left(\dfrac{\sin x}{x}\right)^2$.

I personally find this challenge very intriguing and I solved it, and feel good about it, hehehe...
 
Mathematics news on Phys.org
anemone said:
For $0<x<\dfrac{\pi}{2}$, prove that $\dfrac{\pi^2-x^2}{\pi^2+x^2}>\left(\dfrac{\sin x}{x}\right)^2$.

I personally find this challenge very intriguing and I solved it, and feel good about it, hehehe...

[sp]Rememering that is...

$\displaystyle \frac{\sin x}{x} = \prod_{n=1}^{\infty} (1 - \frac{x^{2}}{n^{2}\ \pi^{2}})\ (1)$

... You derive that...

$\displaystyle (\frac{\sin x}{x})^{2} < (1 - \frac{x^{2}}{\pi^{2}})^{2} < \frac{(1 - \frac{x^{2}}{\pi^{2}})}{(1 + \frac{x^{2}}{\pi^{2}})}\ (2)$

Tha last inequality is justified by tha fact that...

$\displaystyle (1 - \frac{x^{2}}{\pi^{2}})\ (1 + \frac{x^{2}}{\pi^{2}}) < 1\ (3)$[/sp]

Kind regards

$\chi$ $\sigma$
 
Last edited:
Hi chisigma! Thanks for your good solution! And I solved it using the similar method.:)
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
1K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
1K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
1K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
1K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
1K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
1K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
1K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
989
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K