MHB Prove Integrability of f(x)| 0 to 1 Inequality

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The function defined as f(x) = 1+x for rational x and f(x) = 1-x for irrational x on the interval [0,1] is shown to be non-integrable. Attempts to evaluate the lower and upper Riemann sums reveal that they yield different limits, indicating that the function does not meet the criteria for Riemann integrability. The discussion includes details on constructing a standard partition and calculating the sums for both rational and irrational points. Ultimately, the conclusion is reached that the differing limits of the sums confirm the function's non-integrability. This analysis highlights the complexities involved in proving integrability for piecewise functions.
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Prove that the function
$$f(x) = 1+x, 0 \le x \le 1$$, x rational
$$f(x) = 1-x, 0 \le x \le 1$$, x irrational (they are one function, I just don't know how to use the LATEX code properly)
is not integrable on $$[0,1]$$
I don't know where to start, I tried to evalute the lower and upper Riemann sum but it does not seem to work.
I have learned some of the criteria for integrability such as Riemann's Criterion, Common Limit Criterion and Null Partitions Criterion. However, I am not familiar with them enough to use it. Any help?
 
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FallArk said:
Prove that the function
$$f(x) = 1+x, 0 \le x \le 1$$, x rational
$$f(x) = 1-x, 0 \le x \le 1$$, x irrational (they are one function, I just don't know how to use the LATEX code properly)
is not integrable on $$[0,1]$$
I don't know where to start, I tried to evalute the lower and upper Riemann sum but it does not seem to work.
I have learned some of the criteria for integrability such as Riemann's Criterion, Common Limit Criterion and Null Partitions Criterion. However, I am not familiar with them enough to use it. Any help?

Hey FallArk,

The $\LaTeX$ code would be as follows (click Reply With Quote to see what it looks like):
$$
f(x) =
\begin{cases}
1+x, & 0 \le x \le 1, & x \text{ rational} \\
1-x, & 0 \le x \le 1, & x \text{ irrational}
\end{cases}
$$
Now let's pick the standard partition.
And let's try to find an upper bound for the lower Riemann sum with points that are irrational.
Similarly let's find a lower bound for the upper Riemann sum with points that are rational.
What are their limits? (Wondering)
 
What would be the standard partition? $$P= \left\{[{x}_{0},{x}_{1}],...,[{x}_{i-1},{x}_{i}],...,[{x}_{n-1},{x}_{n}]\right\}$$ ?
I think 1-x where x is irrational would be the lower sum, and it should be bounded above by 1, since 0 is not irrational. And 1+x would be the upper sum bounded by 1 as well. :confused:
 
FallArk said:
What would be the standard partition? $$P= \left\{[{x}_{0},{x}_{1}],...,[{x}_{i-1},{x}_{i}],...,[{x}_{n-1},{x}_{n}]\right\}$$ ?
I think 1-x where x is irrational would be the lower sum, and it should be bounded above by 1, since 0 is not irrational. And 1+x would be the upper sum bounded by 1 as well. :confused:

The standard partition is where we divide the interval into equally sized intervals:
$$P_n=\left\{[0,\frac 1n], ..., [\frac{n-1}n,1]\right\}$$
In the interval $[\frac {i-1}n, \frac in]$ an upper bound of the corresponding term of the lower sum would be $1-\frac{i}n$... (Thinking)
 
I like Serena said:
The standard partition is where we divide the interval into equally sized intervals:
$$P_n=\left\{[0,\frac 1n], ..., [\frac{n-1}n,1]\right\}$$
In the interval $[\frac {i-1}n, \frac in]$ an upper bound of the corresponding term of the lower sum would be $1-\frac{i}n$... (Thinking)
Then the lower bound of the upper sum would be $$1+\frac{i-1}{n}$$
After that do I simply evaluate the sums?
 
FallArk said:
Then the lower bound of the upper sum would be $$1+\frac{i-1}{n}$$
After that do I simply evaluate the sums?

Yep. (Nod)
 
I like Serena said:
Yep. (Nod)

Like this?
$$\lim_{{n}\to{\infty}}L\left(f,{P}_{n}\right) = \lim_{{n}\to{\infty}} \left(1-\frac{i}{n}\right)\cdot\frac{1}{n}$$
 
FallArk said:
Like this?
$$\lim_{{n}\to{\infty}}L\left(f,{P}_{n}\right) = \lim_{{n}\to{\infty}} \left(1-\frac{i}{n}\right)\cdot\frac{1}{n}$$

We need to sum first.
That is only the contribution of the last interval.
 
I like Serena said:
We need to sum first.
That is only the contribution of the last interval.

$$L\left(f,{P}_{n}\right) = \sum_{i=1}^{n}\left(1-\frac{i}{n}\right)\cdot\frac{i}{n}$$
then take the limit
 
  • #10
FallArk said:
$$L\left(f,{P}_{n}\right) = \sum_{i=1}^{n}\left(1-\frac{i}{n}\right)\cdot\frac{i}{n}$$
then take the limit

It should be:
$$L\left(f,{P}_{n}\right) \le \sum_{i=1}^{n}\left(1-\frac{i}{n}\right)\cdot\frac{1}{n}$$
and:
$$U\left(f,{P}_{n}\right) \ge \sum_{i=1}^{n}\left(1+\frac{i-1}{n}\right)\cdot\frac{1}{n}$$

If we take the limits, we should find that those are different.
Therefore the function is not Riemann integrable.
 

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