Prove Surjective function (R:reals) with |f(x)-f(y)|>k|x-y|

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving that a continuous function f: R → R, which satisfies the condition |f(x) - f(y)| ≥ k|x - y| for all x, y in R and some k > 0, is surjective. Participants establish that f is injective by showing that if f(x) = f(y), then x must equal y. The proof for surjectivity involves demonstrating that if f were not surjective, it would lead to a contradiction regarding the behavior of f as x approaches infinity. The conclusion is that f must indeed be surjective, confirming that it is a bijection.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of continuous functions in real analysis
  • Knowledge of injective and surjective functions
  • Familiarity with the properties of limits and infinity
  • Basic proof techniques in mathematical analysis
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of continuous functions and their implications on injectivity and surjectivity
  • Learn about the concept of closed images in real analysis
  • Explore the implications of the Intermediate Value Theorem on function behavior
  • Investigate more advanced proof techniques in real analysis, such as contradiction and contrapositive arguments
USEFUL FOR

This discussion is beneficial for students and professionals in mathematics, particularly those focusing on real analysis, function theory, and proof construction. It is especially relevant for anyone studying properties of continuous functions and their applications in higher mathematics.

math8
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(R:reals)
Let f:R-->R be continuous and satisfy |f(x)-f(y)|>or eq. to k|x-y| for all x, y in R and some k>0. Show that f is surjective.

I can show that f is injective: let f(x) = f(y), hence k|x-y|< or eq. to 0, thus x=y.

I had a suggestion that it might be helpful to show that f has closed image. But I don't see how to work with that.
I know that f is surjective if for each y in R there is an x in R such that f(x)=y.
I don't see how to proceed.
 
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Well, assuming the function is injective (I'm not great with these proofs so I'm not sure yours is correct) and f is also surjective, then f is a bijection; hence, f must have a have a one to one correspondance. Now suppose f is not bijective, then there must be some value f(x) = f(y) where y > x (for definiteness), can you show how this contradicts your initial conditions?
 
This isn't a very difficult proof. Consider f(-x), f(0) and f(x) while x goes to infinity.
 
Crap, I mixed my definitions up. Sorry math8!

Well, here's my idea for a proof for surjection (really this time). Suppose f is not surjective. Then, since f is continuous, as x -> infinity, f(x) -> N (or at least varies between values in some finite interval). Now we fix y such that y = 0 and f(y) = C. Therefore, abs(N - C) >= k lim (x -> infinity) abs(x) which cannot be true. Use a similar approach to completely show f is surjective (I think it should work, though my approach is a quite informal). Again, I'm really sorry!
 

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