Hi guys.
I was reading some QM and they mentioned exp(a+b)=exp(a)*exp(b) only if [a,b]=0; so I thought to go to the series definition of exp(x) and work it out by myself.
I do understand where the problem arises if suddenly a and b don't commute anymore, but that's not my problem. I want to write down the proof for exp(a+b)=exp(a)*exp(b) for "typical" a and b. iykwim
So, I came across your post and I would like some further details of how to preoceed in the proof.
this is what I have so far:
If:
[tex]
exp(x)=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}{\frac{x^n}{n!}} [/tex]
Then, for exp(a)*exp(b), we have:[tex]
exp(a)*exp(b)=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \sum_{m=0}^{\infty}{\frac{a^n}{n!}}{\frac{b^m}{m!}} [/tex]
However, if I start with exp(a+b), I go like this:[tex]
exp(a+b)=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}{\frac{(a+b)^n}{n!}} = <br />
\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \sum_{k=0}^{n}\frac{1}{n!}\binom{n}{k}a^k\cdot b^{n-k} =<br />
\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \sum_{k=0}^{n}\frac{a^k}{k!}\frac{b^{n-k}}{(n-k)!}[/tex]
-------------------------------------------------------------
Summarizing, I get on one hand:
[tex]
\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \sum_{m=0}^{\infty}{\frac{a^n}{n!}}{\frac{b^m}{m!}} [/tex]
While on the other hand I get:
[tex]
\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \sum_{k=0}^{n}\frac{a^k}{k!}\frac{b^{n-k}}{(n-k)!}[/tex]
The two expressions look alike, but I can't put them in the very exact form. Could you help me here?
How should I proceed? I have a feeling that some index substitution is the answer, but I haven't figured out which one...