Prove that lim x -> 0 sin (1/x) doesn't exist

  • Thread starter Thread starter Portuga
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Sin
Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The limit of the function lim x -> 0 sin(1/x) does not exist. This conclusion is reached by analyzing two sequences: a_u = π/2 + 2πu and b_u = uπ, both of which approach infinity as u approaches infinity. The limit of sin(a_u) approaches 1, while the limit of sin(b_u) approaches 0. Since these two limits yield different results, it is established that lim x -> 0 sin(1/x) does not exist.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of limits in calculus
  • Familiarity with trigonometric functions and their properties
  • Knowledge of sequences and their convergence
  • Ability to manipulate mathematical expressions involving limits
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the concept of limits involving oscillatory functions
  • Learn about the epsilon-delta definition of limits
  • Explore the behavior of trigonometric functions at infinity
  • Investigate the use of sequences to prove limits in calculus
USEFUL FOR

Students studying calculus, particularly those focusing on limits and trigonometric functions, as well as educators looking for examples of non-existent limits in mathematical analysis.

Portuga
Messages
56
Reaction score
6

Homework Statement


prove that
<br /> <br /> \lim_{x\rightarrow 0} \sin \left( \frac{1}{x} \right)<br /> <br /> doesn't exist.

Homework Equations


<br /> \lim_{x\rightarrow0}\sin\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)=\lim_{u\rightarrow\infty}\sin u<br />

The Attempt at a Solution


My strategy to solve this problem is to make u \rightarrow \infty through different paths and show that the limits are different.
So, first one is a_{u}=\frac{\pi}{2}+2\pi u,\,u\in\mathbb{N}. Second one is <br /> b_{u}=u\pi,\,u\in\mathbb{N}.
Both these have the same behavior as u \rightarrow \infty:
<br /> <br /> \lim_{u\rightarrow\infty}a_{u}=\lim_{u\rightarrow\infty}b_{u}=\infty.<br /> <br />
For with first one,
<br /> \begin{aligned}\lim_{u\rightarrow\infty}\sin a_{u} &amp; =\lim_{u\rightarrow\infty}\sin\left(\frac{\pi}{2}+2\pi u\right)\\ &amp; =\lim_{u\rightarrow\infty}\sin\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)\cos2\pi u+\sin2\pi u\cos\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)\\ &amp; =\lim_{u\rightarrow\infty}\sin\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)\cos2\pi u+\lim_{u\rightarrow\infty}\sin2\pi u\cos\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)\\ &amp; =\lim_{u\rightarrow\infty}\cos2\pi u+\lim_{u\rightarrow\infty}\sin2\pi u\cos\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right). \end{aligned}<br />

The limit <br /> \lim_{u\rightarrow\infty}\sin2\pi u\cos\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)<br /> tends to 0, as <br /> \cos\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)<br /> tends to 0, and <br /> \sin2\pi u<br /> is limited both upper and lower bound.

Therefore, <br /> \lim_{u\rightarrow\infty}\sin a_{u}=1.<br />

Now, <br /> \lim_{u\rightarrow\infty}\sin b_{u}=\lim_{u\rightarrow\infty}\sin u\pi=0,<br /> as, \forall u, u\pi is an multiple of \pi, which \sin is null.
Then, <br /> \lim_{u\rightarrow\infty}\sin b_{u}=0.<br />
Because of these two different results for different paths, it's true that <br /> \nexists\lim_{x\rightarrow0}\sin\frac{1}{x}.<br />

Am I correct?
Thanks in advance!
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
It looks okay, but could have been a lot simpler:

##\sin(\frac{\pi}{2} + 2\pi u) = \sin{\frac{\pi}{2}} = 1##

Also, you could just let ##a_u = \frac{1}{\frac{\pi}{2} + 2\pi u}## and keep the limits going to ##0##.
 
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: Portuga
You are overthinking this. The individual functions are constant, their limit is easy to find.
Directly using sequences for the original function is better, because it avoids issues with the sign change at 0.
 
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: Portuga
mfb said:
You are overthinking this. The individual functions are constant, their limit is easy to find.
Directly using sequences for the original function is better, because it avoids issues with the sign change at 0.
You mean, I should use <br /> a_{u}=\frac{1}{\frac{\pi}{2}+2\pi u},\,u\in\mathbb{N}<br /> and <br /> \lim_{x\rightarrow0}\sin\frac{1}{x}<br /> since the beginning, correct?
 
PeroK said:
It looks okay, but could have been a lot simpler:

##\sin(\frac{\pi}{2} + 2\pi u) = \sin{\frac{\pi}{2}} = 1##

Also, you could just let ##a_u = \frac{1}{\frac{\pi}{2} + 2\pi u}## and keep the limits going to ##0##.
 
Portuga said:
You mean, I should use <br /> a_{u}=\frac{1}{\frac{\pi}{2}+2\pi u},\,u\in\mathbb{N}<br /> and <br /> \lim_{x\rightarrow0}\sin\frac{1}{x}<br /> since the beginning, correct?

I thought you were using the idea of finding two sequences that converge to 0 but for which the two sequences of function values converge to different values. That looks fine as an approach. Changing the limit to ##\infty## requires a bit more justification.
 
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: Portuga
PeroK said:
I thought you were using the idea of finding two sequences that converge to 0 but for which the two sequences of function values converge to different values. That looks fine as an approach. Changing the limit to ##\infty## requires a bit more justification.
Yes, that's exactly what's my initial approach was: two sequences converging to same value, but producing different limits with \sin \left( \frac{1}{x} \right).
 
Portuga said:

Homework Equations


<br /> \lim_{x\rightarrow0}\sin\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)=\lim_{u\rightarrow\infty}\sin u<br />

One minor problem is that:

<br /> \lim_{x\rightarrow0+}\sin\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)=\lim_{u\rightarrow\infty}\sin u<br />

This is not fatal to your proof, but what you have is not quite right. It's better to stick with sequences going to 0.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 15 ·
Replies
15
Views
2K
  • · Replies 17 ·
Replies
17
Views
1K
  • · Replies 10 ·
Replies
10
Views
2K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
2K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
4K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
5K
  • · Replies 18 ·
Replies
18
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
Replies
17
Views
2K