- #1
Mr Davis 97
- 1,462
- 44
Let ##|x| = n## and ##|x^{-1}| = m##. So ##x^n = 1## and ##(x^{-1})^{m} = 1##. Both of these imply that ##x^m = 1## and ##(x^{-1})^n = 1##. Hence, ##n = am## and ##m = bn## for some ##a,b \in \mathbb{N}##. If we divide both equations we find that ##a = b##. Therefore ##m/n = n/m \implies n^2 = m^2 \implies n = m##. Hence, ##x## and its inverse have the same order.
Is this a correct proof?
Is this a correct proof?