Prove that x and x^-1 have same order

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The discussion confirms that if the order of an element x in a group is n, then the order of its inverse x^-1 is also n. The proof is established by demonstrating that both x^n = 1 and (x^-1)^m = 1 lead to the equations n = am and m = bn for some natural numbers a and b. By dividing these equations, it is shown that a equals b, leading to the conclusion that n = m. Thus, x and its inverse indeed have the same order.

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Mr Davis 97
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Let ##|x| = n## and ##|x^{-1}| = m##. So ##x^n = 1## and ##(x^{-1})^{m} = 1##. Both of these imply that ##x^m = 1## and ##(x^{-1})^n = 1##. Hence, ##n = am## and ##m = bn## for some ##a,b \in \mathbb{N}##. If we divide both equations we find that ##a = b##. Therefore ##m/n = n/m \implies n^2 = m^2 \implies n = m##. Hence, ##x## and its inverse have the same order.

Is this a correct proof?
 
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Mr Davis 97 said:
Let ##|x| = n## and ##|x^{-1}| = m##. So ##x^n = 1## and ##(x^{-1})^{m} = 1##. Both of these imply ...
Yes, but how?
... that ##x^m = 1## and ##(x^{-1})^n = 1##. Hence, ##n = am## and ##m = bn## for some ##a,b \in \mathbb{N}##. If we divide both equations we find that ##a = b##.
How? I get ##n=am=a(bn)=(ab)n## and thus ##ab=1## resp. ##a=b=1## and so ##n=m##.
Therefore ##m/n = n/m \implies n^2 = m^2 \implies n = m##. Hence, ##x## and its inverse have the same order.

Is this a correct proof?
I could follow the first missing step in mind, but not the second. How did you get ##a=b\,? ##
 
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