Prove that X U Y is countable infinite.

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on proving that the union of two countably infinite sets, X and Y, is also countably infinite. The key conclusion is that if X and Y are disjoint and each is isomorphic to the natural numbers (N), a bijection can be constructed to demonstrate that X ∪ Y is also isomorphic to N. Specifically, the bijection can be defined by mapping even natural numbers to elements of X and odd natural numbers to elements of Y, thus establishing the required one-to-one correspondence.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of countably infinite sets and their properties.
  • Familiarity with bijections and isomorphisms in set theory.
  • Knowledge of the natural numbers and their representation.
  • Basic concepts of functions and mappings in mathematics.
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  • Study the properties of bijections in set theory.
  • Learn about disjoint sets and their implications for union operations.
  • Explore the concept of cardinality and how it applies to infinite sets.
  • Investigate examples of constructing bijections between sets.
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Mathematics students, particularly those studying set theory and abstract algebra, as well as educators seeking to clarify concepts related to countable infinity and bijections.

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Homework Statement



attachment.php?attachmentid=59098&stc=1&d=1369787409.jpg


Homework Equations



Countable Infinite is defined if X is infinite and X is isomorphic to the Natural Numbers.

The Attempt at a Solution



Now I assume that XUY is isomorphic to the Natural Numbers. So X ∪ Y ≅ N .

Now here's where I get confused. I am unsure how to define a function that is invertible (to prove the bijection of being 1-1 and onto). Does anyone have an idea on where to go with this proof?
Thank you,
G.
 

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Nexttime35 said:

Homework Statement



attachment.php?attachmentid=59098&stc=1&d=1369787409.jpg


Homework Equations



Countable Infinite is defined if X is infinite and X is isomorphic to the Natural Numbers.

The Attempt at a Solution



Now I assume that XUY is isomorphic to the Natural Numbers. So X ∪ Y ≅ N .

Now here's where I get confused. I am unsure how to define a function that is invertible (to prove the bijection of being 1-1 and onto). Does anyone have an idea on where to go with this proof?
Thank you,
G.

You don't start by assuming XuY is countable. That's what you want to prove. Suppose X and Y are disjoint. If X ≅ N then there is a bijection f:N->X so you can write X={f(1),f(2),f(3),...}. Similarly Y={g(1),g(2),g(3),...}. Can you define a bijection h:N->XuY? Think of an h mapping even numbers to X and all of the odd numbers to Y.
 
Ahh, ok, that definitely makes sense. Thank you for the guidance.
 

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