Prove Theorem: Probability of A Subset B is Less than B

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around proving a theorem related to probability, specifically that if event A is a subset of event B, then the probability of A is less than or equal to the probability of B, and that the probability of the difference between B and A equals the probability of B minus the probability of A. The scope includes mathematical reasoning and the application of probability axioms.

Discussion Character

  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant presents an attempt to prove that if $A \subset B$, then $P(A) \le P(B)$ using the properties of probability functions.
  • Another participant suggests that the initial proof attempt appears correct but recommends listing the axioms used for clarity.
  • A third participant lists three axioms of probability that they are using to support their proof attempt.
  • A later reply proposes a way to express B as the union of the difference between B and A and A, which may help in the proof.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree on the validity of the initial proof attempt, but there is no consensus on how to proceed with proving the second part of the theorem regarding $P(B-A)$.

Contextual Notes

There is mention of context being different across textbooks, indicating that assumptions may vary. The second part of the theorem remains unresolved, particularly in how to manipulate the intersection into a union for the proof.

Who May Find This Useful

This discussion may be useful for students or individuals interested in probability theory, particularly those looking to understand the relationship between subsets and their probabilities.

Guest2
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How do I prove the following theorem?

If $A \subset B$ then $P(A) \le P(B)$ and $P(B-A) = P(B)-P(A)$

$A$ and $B$ are events and $P$ is the probability function.

What I tried (but not sure if it's right or not):

$P(B) = P((B\setminus A) \cup (B \cap A)) = P(B\setminus A)+P(B \cap A) \ge 0+P(B \cap A) \ge P(A) $

Therefore $P(B) - P(A) \ge 0$. Hence $P(B) \ge P(A)$.
 
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Guest said:
How do I prove the following theorem?

If $A \subset B$ then $P(A) \le P(B)$ and $P(B-A) = P(B)-P(A)$

$A$ and $B$ are events and $P$ is the probability function.

What I tried (but not sure if it's right or not):

$P(B) = P((B\setminus A) \cup (B \cap A)) = P(B\setminus A)+P(B \cap A) \ge 0+P(B \cap A) \ge P(A) $

Therefore $P(B) - P(A) \ge 0$. Hence $P(B) \ge P(A)$.

Hi Guest! ;)

It looks right to me.
You may want to list the axioms you're using though.
There is some context missing, which is different in every textbook on the subject.
 
I like Serena said:
Hi Guest! ;)

It looks right to me.
You may want to list the axioms you're using though.
There is some context missing, which is different in every textbook on the subject.
Hi, I like Serena. :D Thanks for the reply.

I'm using the following three axioms:

Axiom 1: For every event $A$ in the class $C$,

$$P(A) \ge 0$$

Axiom 2: For the sure or certain event $S$ in the class $C$,

$$P(S) = 1$$

Axiom 3: For any number of mutually exclusive events $A_1, A_2,\cdots$, in the class C,

$$P(A_1 \cup A_2 \cup \cdots) = P(A_1)+P(A_2) +\cdots $$

How do I prove the second part of the theorem?

I know that $P(B-A) = P(B \cap A')$ but I don't know how to turn the intersection into union so that I can use axiom 3.
 
How about $B=(B-A)\cup A$?
 

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