solakis
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Can we prove :([itex]A\cap B[/itex])' = [itex]A^'\cup B^'[/itex] ,without using De Morgan's??
The discussion revolves around the proof of the set identity \((A \cap B)' = A' \cup B'\) without employing De Morgan's Theorem. Participants explore various methods and definitions to establish this identity, focusing on the need for an "ordinary proof" as opposed to graphical or theorem-based approaches.
Participants do not reach a consensus on how to prove the identity without invoking De Morgan's Theorem. There are competing views on the validity of using different proof methods, and some participants express confusion regarding the definitions and requirements of the proof.
Participants express limitations in finding proofs that do not reference De Morgan's Theorem, indicating a potential gap in available resources or methods for proving the identity as requested.
phinds said:you can if you accept a Karnaugh map or a Venn diagram as proof
solakis said:no ,i mean an ordinary proof.
HallsofIvy said:Just use the basic definitions:
If [itex]x\in \left(A\cap B\right)'[/itex], then x is NOT in[itex]A\cap B[/itex] when means it is either not in A or not in B..
phinds said:well, try googling "proof of DeMorgan's Theorem" (or Law as it seems to be called these days)
solakis said:I am afraid i could not find a proof ,apart from one using truth tables
HallsofIvy said:Just use the basic definitions:
If [itex]x\in \left(A\cap B\right)'[/itex], then x is NOT in[itex]A\cap B[/itex] when means it is either not in A or not in B. If it is not in A then it is in A' and therefore in [itex]A'\cup B'[/itex]. If it is not in B then it is in B' and therefore in [itex]A'\cup B'[/itex]. Thus, [itex]\left(A\cap B\right)'\subset A'\cup B'[/itex].
The other way: if [itex]x \in A' \cup B'[/itex] it is in either A' or in B'. If it is in A', ...
solakis said:That is using De Morgan's. But i asked for a proof without using De Morgans