Proving a subgroup is equivalent to Z

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on proving that the subgroup generated by the polynomials \( (n^{3} + 2n)Z \) and \( (n^{4} + 3n^{2} + 1)Z \) is equivalent to \( Z \) for \( n \in \mathbb{N}, n \geq 1 \). The key approach involves demonstrating that the greatest common divisor (gcd) of the two polynomials is 1, which can be achieved using the Euclidean algorithm and polynomial division. The proof is validated by showing that the linear combination of the two polynomials yields 1, confirming that the subgroup indeed generates \( Z \).

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of subgroups in group theory, specifically \( aZ \) forms.
  • Knowledge of the Euclidean algorithm for finding gcd.
  • Familiarity with polynomial division techniques.
  • Basic concepts of generating sets in algebra.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the Euclidean algorithm in the context of polynomials.
  • Practice polynomial long division with various polynomial pairs.
  • Explore the properties of subgroups in \( \mathbb{Z} \) and their generators.
  • Investigate other methods for proving equivalence of subgroups in group theory.
USEFUL FOR

Mathematics students, particularly those studying abstract algebra, group theory, or anyone interested in understanding polynomial properties and subgroup generation.

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Homework Statement



for n \in N, n \geq 1 Prove that (n^{3} +2n)Z + (n^{4}+3n^{2}+1)Z= Z

Homework Equations


I know subgroups of Z are of the form aZ for some a in Z and also that aZ+bZ= dZ, where d=gcd(a,b)

The Attempt at a Solution



So I was thinking if I could prove that the gcd of (n^3+2n) and (n^4+3n^2+1) was 1, then I could make the proof, but I'm struggling to figure out how to find a gcd of two polynomials... I also tried factoring to see if that led anywhere, but it didn't really...

Then I was thinking that if I could show that 1 was in the group, and since 1 generates Z, that would prove that the group was equivalent to Z... but then I wasn't actually sure that logic was sound.

Any help or some guidance in the right direction would be appreciated. Thanks!
 
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Your first idea is correct. Do you know the Euclidean algorithm and polynomial division? So that you can check your work, you should find that

-(n^3+2n)(n^3+2n) + (1+n^2)(n^4+3n^2+1) = 1
 
Thank you! For some reason I didn't think polynomial long division was the way to go... I'm always so unconfident when I do these sorts of proofs.
 
There is something to be said for confidence (or perhaps intuition?). Unfortunately, it seems like a lot of the time the only way to find that confidence/intuition is to fail/succeed at a tonne of questions.

Also, something you may notice is that (like this question) there are always many ways to attack a problem. We often cannot determine which way is correct until we have followed a path through to its conclusion and found that it is a dead end. Luckily, even dead-ends often provide insight and understanding into the structure of a problem: Even through failure, we are constantly learning.
 

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