Proving Abelianity in Groups with $g^{2} = 1$: A Simple Proof

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The discussion centers on proving that a group \( G \) where \( g^2 = 1 \) for all \( g \in G \) is Abelian. Participants clarify that the key to the proof lies in demonstrating that \( gh = hg \) for any elements \( g, h \in G \). The proof involves expanding \( (gh)^2 = 1 \) and showing that this leads to the conclusion that \( g(ghgh) = g \), ultimately establishing the commutative property of the group. The assertion that not all groups are Abelian is also emphasized.

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GreenGoblin
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I need to show a group with $g^{2} = 1$ for all g is Abelian. This is all the information given, I do know what Abelian is, and I know that this group is but I don't know how to 'show' it. Can someone help?

Gracias,
GreenGoblin
 
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For a start, see this page from The Math Forum.
 
I did the proof and it doesn't seem to be relevant that $g^{2}=1$. Just that it is the group of $g^{2}$. Is this right?
 
For $$ g,h\in G $$ consider $$ (gh)^2=1 $$ then expand out and see what happens
 
GreenGoblin said:
I did the proof and it doesn't seem to be relevant that $g^{2}=1$. Just that it is the group of $g^{2}$. Is this right?
I am not sure what "the group of $g^{2}$" means. Could you post your proof?
 
I just showed algebraically gh = hg, without using the fact $(gh)^{2}=1$.
 
perhaps you should show your proof.

it is not the case that all groups are abelian, only some groups are.

a typical proof starts out like this:

suppose $g^2 = 1$ for all g in G. let g, h be any two elements of G (which perhaps might be the same element, if |G| = 1).

then gh is an element of G, so

$(gh)^2 = 1$, that is:

ghgh = 1. then,

g(ghgh) = g(1) = g, and...?
 

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