Kzmo
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If [itex]0 ≤ a < b[/itex] and [itex]0 ≤ c <d[/itex], then prove that [itex]ac < bd[/itex]
I have taken the proof approach from some previous problems in Spivak's book on Calculus (3rd edition).
This is problem 5.(viii) in chapter 1: Basic Properties of Numbers.
I did as follows:
If [itex]a = 0[/itex] or [itex]c = 0[/itex], then [itex]ac = 0[/itex], but since [itex]0 < bd[/itex], so [itex]ac < bd[/itex]
Otherwise,
[itex]0 < a[/itex] & [itex]b > a[/itex] & [itex]0 < c[/itex] & [itex]d > c[/itex]
Therefore,
[itex]a \in \mathbb{R}[/itex] and [itex](b-a) \in \mathbb{R}[/itex] and [itex]c\in \mathbb{R}[/itex] and [itex](d-c) \in \mathbb{R}[/itex]
[itex]a(b-a)\in \mathbb{R}[/itex] and [itex]c(d-c)\in \mathbb{R}[/itex]
[itex]a(b-a)[/itex] and [itex]c(d-c)\in \mathbb{R}[/itex]
This is where I am stuck.
From here, How can I algebraically deduce that [itex]ac < bd[/itex]?
Any hint, would be greatly appreciated,
Thank you very much in advance.
I have taken the proof approach from some previous problems in Spivak's book on Calculus (3rd edition).
This is problem 5.(viii) in chapter 1: Basic Properties of Numbers.
I did as follows:
If [itex]a = 0[/itex] or [itex]c = 0[/itex], then [itex]ac = 0[/itex], but since [itex]0 < bd[/itex], so [itex]ac < bd[/itex]
Otherwise,
[itex]0 < a[/itex] & [itex]b > a[/itex] & [itex]0 < c[/itex] & [itex]d > c[/itex]
Therefore,
[itex]a \in \mathbb{R}[/itex] and [itex](b-a) \in \mathbb{R}[/itex] and [itex]c\in \mathbb{R}[/itex] and [itex](d-c) \in \mathbb{R}[/itex]
[itex]a(b-a)\in \mathbb{R}[/itex] and [itex]c(d-c)\in \mathbb{R}[/itex]
[itex]a(b-a)[/itex] and [itex]c(d-c)\in \mathbb{R}[/itex]
This is where I am stuck.
From here, How can I algebraically deduce that [itex]ac < bd[/itex]?
Any hint, would be greatly appreciated,
Thank you very much in advance.