Proving b_m ≥ ∑b_i^2 Under Given Conditions

  • Context: Undergrad 
  • Thread starter Thread starter fmilano
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Conditions
Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving the inequality b_m ≥ ∑b_i^2 under specific conditions: b_m is the maximum of the set {b_i}, each b_i is constrained between 0 and 1, and their sum equals 1. Federico seeks to establish this inequality to support the assertion that the Bayes decision error bound serves as a lower bound for the nearest neighbor rule error bound. A key insight provided is that since 0 ≤ b_i^2 ≤ b_i ≤ 1, it follows that ∑b_i^2 ≤ ∑b_i = 1, reinforcing the validity of the inequality.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of inequalities in real analysis
  • Familiarity with the properties of maximum functions
  • Knowledge of probability theory, particularly related to bounded random variables
  • Basic comprehension of decision theory and error bounds
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of maximum functions in mathematical inequalities
  • Research the Bayes decision error bound and its implications in decision theory
  • Explore the nearest neighbor rule and its error bounds in statistical learning
  • Examine the implications of bounded random variables in probability theory
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, statisticians, and data scientists interested in decision theory, particularly those working with error bounds and inequalities in probabilistic models.

fmilano
Messages
7
Reaction score
0
Hi, I need to show this:

[tex]b_m \geq\sum_{i=1}^n b_i^2[/tex]

given these three conditions:

[tex]b_m \geq b_i[/tex], for [tex]i=1..n[/tex] (in other words [tex]b_m = max(b_i)[/tex]) and

[tex]0 \leq b_i \leq 1[/tex] for [tex]i=1..n[/tex] and

[tex]\sum_{i=1}^n b_i=1[/tex]

I've been working for hours in this without results...Any clue would be really appreciated

(this is not a homework exercise. I'm just trying to convince myself that the bayes decision error bound is a lower bound for the nearest neighbor rule error bound, and to convince myself of that I've arrived at the conclusion that I have to show the above).

Thanks,

Federico
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Maybe this will help . . .

[tex]0 \leq b_{i}^2 \leq b_i \leq 1[/tex], this implies that [tex]\sum_{i = 1}^n b_{i}^2 \leq \sum_{i = 1}^n b_i = 1[/tex].
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
3K
  • · Replies 0 ·
Replies
0
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 0 ·
Replies
0
Views
2K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
3K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
3K
  • · Replies 13 ·
Replies
13
Views
3K
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 17 ·
Replies
17
Views
2K
Replies
5
Views
2K