poutsos.A
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Hi ,my lecturer ask me to prove ~(p^q) = ~pv~q i.e ~(p^q) is equivalent to ~pv~q,without using the true tables.
thanks for your help
thanks for your help
The discussion revolves around proving De Morgan's Law, specifically the equivalence of the expression ~(p∧q) to the expression ~p∨~q, without utilizing truth tables. The scope includes logical reasoning and proof techniques in propositional logic.
Participants do not appear to reach a consensus on the proof method, and there is uncertainty regarding the specific rules of natural deduction and their application to the proof of De Morgan's Law.
There are limitations in the discussion regarding the clarity of the rules of natural deduction and the specific version of De Morgan's Law that needs to be proven. The original poster's understanding of the topic seems to depend on definitions and examples not fully explored in the discussion.