Proving Equality of Image and Eigenspace for Eigenvalue 1

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves proving the equality of the image of a linear transformation and the eigenspace corresponding to the eigenvalue 1 for a given matrix \( A \) that satisfies \( A^2 = I_n \). The context is within linear algebra, specifically focusing on eigenvalues and eigenspaces.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the need to show mutual inclusion between the image of the transformation \( im(L_{I_{n}+A}) \) and the eigenspace \( E_{1}(A) \). There is an attempt to express elements of the image in terms of eigenvectors. Questions arise regarding the definition of the transformation \( L_{I_{n}+A} \) and the implications of assuming \( x = y \) in the context of eigenvectors.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants exploring different aspects of the problem. Some have provided insights into the definitions and relationships between the elements involved, while others are questioning the validity of certain assumptions and steps in the reasoning process.

Contextual Notes

There is a noted lack of clarity regarding the definition of \( L_{I_{n}+A} \), which has led to some confusion in the discussion. Additionally, the participants are working under the constraints of the problem as stated, without additional context or definitions provided.

chrisb93
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Homework Statement


It's given or I've already shown in previous parts of the question:
[itex]A \in M_{nxn}(F)\\<br /> A^{2}=I_{n}\\<br /> F = \mathbb{Q}, \mathbb{R} or \mathbb{C}\\<br /> ker(L_{I_{n}+A})=E_{-1}(A)[/itex]
Eigenvalues of A must be [itex]\pm1[/itex]

Show [itex]im(L_{I_{n}+A})=E_{1}(A)[/itex] where E is the eigenspace for the eigenvalue 1

(I also need to show that [itex]im(L_{I_{n}-A})=E_{-1}(A)[/itex] but I think that should be simple once I've done one of them)

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution


I know that I need to show both sets are contained within the other set so,

Show [itex]im(L_{I_{n}+A}) \subseteq E_{1}(A)[/itex]
[itex]y=L_{I_{n}+A}(x)[/itex] Let y be a general element of the image
[itex]=x+Ax[/itex] By definition of the transformation
[itex]\Rightarrow A y = A x + A^{2} x[/itex] Multiply through by A
[itex]= A x + x[/itex] As A2 is the identity element
[itex]\Rightarrow A y = y \in E_{1}(A)[/itex] As [itex]E_{1}(A) := \{ x | A x = x \}[/itex]

I've no idea how to show [itex]E_{1}(A) \subseteq im(L_{I_{n}+A})[/itex]
 
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You don't seem to have defined "[itex]L_{I_n+ A}[/itex]" in all that.
 
HallsofIvy said:
You don't seem to have defined "[itex]L_{I_n+ A}[/itex]" in all that.

It's never specifically defined in the question but I believe the subscript is the matrix representing the map so [itex]L(x) = (I_{n} + A)x[/itex]
 
Take an eigenvector with eigenvalue 1. So Ay=y.

You need to find x such that (A+I)x=y.

What if you take x=y??
 
micromass said:
Take an eigenvector with eigenvalue 1. So Ay=y.

You need to find x such that (A+I)x=y.

What if you take x=y??

I don't see how that works, if x=y then Ax=x therefore (A+I)x=Ax+x=2x=y which contradicts itself.
 
Last edited:

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