Proving Equivalence of Euler-Macheroni Constant

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on proving the equivalence of the Euler-Mascheroni constant, denoted as γ, through its integral definition and summation representation. The integral is defined as γ := ∫₀^∞ e⁻ᵗ log(1/t) dt, while the summation representation is γ := limₙ→∞ [∑ₖ₌₁ⁿ (1/k) - log(n)]. Participants suggest that elementary techniques, including the Laplace transform and properties of the Gamma function, can be employed to demonstrate this equivalence. The discussion highlights the relationship between the Gamma function's product expression and its integral definition as a key to solving the problem.

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  • Understanding of the Euler-Mascheroni constant (γ)
  • Familiarity with the Gamma function and its properties
  • Knowledge of integral calculus and series expansions
  • Experience with the Laplace transform
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of the Gamma function, specifically its integral and product forms
  • Explore the Euler-Maclaurin summation formula for approximating sums
  • Learn about the Laplace transform and its applications in proving equivalences
  • Investigate advanced calculus techniques for evaluating improper integrals
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Mathematicians, students of advanced calculus, and anyone interested in the properties of special functions, particularly those studying the Euler-Mascheroni constant and its applications in analysis.

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Hi Everyone,

I just registered for PF today because this problem was driving me nuts and I was hoping to get some help. It comes from pg. 5 of Peter Miller's "Applied Asymptotic Analysis" and goes like this:

The Euler gamma constant has one definition as
\gamma := \int_0^\infty e^{-t}\log\left(\frac{1}{t}\right)\,dt.

The problem is to then show that this integral is equivalent to the summation representation of \gamma:
\gamma:= \lim_{n\to\infty} \left[\sum_{k=1}^n \frac{1}{k} - \log n\right]

Assuming a lot of stuff, you can prove the first definition from the Laplace transform of log and the properties of the gamma function. However, this problem is much more difficult because they want you to show the equivalence between this integral and difference limit with what I think is very little background information.

I'm sure that this can be solved with elementary techniques, because it's in a textbook, but I am still stumped on how to do this. I've tried using elementary calculus, like just taking the integral and various series expansions, and even tried fitting the Euler-MacClaurin summation formula. I think there is just some simple trick, but I'm not sure.

Any insight would be much appreciated!
 
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Do you know about the product expression for the Gamma function?
\Gamma(z) = \frac{e^{-\gamma z}}{z} \prod_{k=1}^\infty \left[ \left(1 + \frac{z}{k}\right)^{-1} e^{z/k} \right]
Taking the log of this:
\log \Gamma(z) = -\gamma z - \log z + \sum_{k=1}^\infty \left[ - \log\left(1 + \frac{z}{k}\right) + \frac{z}{k} \right]
For z = 1[/tex], this becomes<br /> 0 = \log \Gamma(1) = -\gamma + \sum_{k=1}^\infty \left[ \frac{1}{k} - \log(k + 1) + \log k \right]<br /> so that<br /> \gamma = \sum_{k=1}^\infty \left[ \frac{1}{k} - \log(k + 1) + \log k \right] = \lim_{n \to \infty} \left[ \sum_{k=1}^n \frac{1}{k} - \log(n+1) \right] = \lim_{n \to \infty} \left[ \sum_{k=1}^n \frac{1}{k} - \log n \right]<br /> (the last equality because \lim_{n \to \infty} \log(n+1) - \log n = 0).<br /> <br /> The problem is reduced to showing that the infinite product definition and integral definition of the Gamma function are equivalent. Then \gamma = -\Gamma&amp;#039;(1); the first definition of \gamma you give is easily derived from the integral definition of the Gamma function.
 

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