Proving Every Infinite Set Has a Countable Subset

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Doom of Doom
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So, the task is to prove: Every infinite set has a infinite countable subset.2. A set [tex]X[/tex] is countable if there exists a bijection [tex]\phi: \mathbb{N}\rightarrow X[/tex]3. So here's what I have:

Let [tex]A[/tex] be an infinite set, and pick some [tex]a_{1}\in A[/tex]. Define [tex]S_{n}=\left\{a_{i}[/tex], [tex]i\in \mathbb{N} \left| 1\leq i \leq n \right\}[/tex].
Pick [tex]a_{n}\in (A - S_{n-1})[/tex] for each [tex]n \in \mathbb{N}[/tex], [tex]n>1[/tex].

Let [tex]X=\left\{a_{n}|n \in \mathbb{N}\right\}[/tex], and let [tex]\phi: \mathbb{N}\rightarrow X[/tex] by [tex]\phi(x)=a_{x}[/tex].

Then I can show that [tex]\phi[/tex] is a bijection, and thus I am done. Is this good? I'm sure there has to be a better way to do this.
 
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I think it's alright. It's essentially what I suggested, but my answer has disappeared.. maybe it was too explicit..?
 
Pere Callahan said:
I think it's alright. It's essentially what I suggested, but my answer has disappeared.. maybe it was too explicit..?

Your post didn't disappear. It's on the other thread called 'countable sbset'. Don't repost the same question Doom of Doom.
 
Oh, I see, thanks Dick :smile:
 
I am sorry. My internet crashed right when i submitted the post, then when I went back later I didn't see my original post, so I made a new one.