evinda
Gold Member
MHB
- 3,741
- 0
I like Serena said:Yep! (Nod)
According to the definition, it is $f(n)=o(g(n))$, if $\forall c>0, \exists n_0 \geq 0$ such that $\forall n \geq n_0$:
$$0 \leq f(n)<c g(n)$$
So, do I have to say also at the beginning, that $\lg^2 n \geq 0, \forall n \geq 0$ ? (Thinking)