Proving Limits of Infinite Integrals with LaTeX

Click For Summary
SUMMARY

This discussion focuses on proving the limits of infinite integrals, specifically addressing the condition that if \(\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} f\) exists, then \(\lim_{N\rightarrow \infty} \int_{-N}^{N} f\) also exists and is equal to the integral itself. The user attempts to demonstrate this by splitting the integrals and applying the triangle inequality, while seeking clarification on definitions related to Riemann and Lebesgue integrals. The conversation emphasizes the importance of precise definitions in mathematical proofs to avoid confusion.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Riemann and Lebesgue integrals
  • Familiarity with limits and continuity in calculus
  • Proficiency in LaTeX for mathematical typesetting
  • Knowledge of inequalities and their applications in proofs
NEXT STEPS
  • Research the properties of Riemann and Lebesgue integrals
  • Study the triangle inequality and its implications in calculus
  • Learn advanced LaTeX techniques for writing mathematical proofs
  • Explore convergence theorems related to improper integrals
USEFUL FOR

Mathematics students, educators, and researchers interested in advanced calculus, particularly those working with infinite integrals and seeking to improve their LaTeX skills.

mscbuck
Messages
18
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


Prove that if [tex]\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} f[/tex] exists, then [tex]\lim_{N\rightarrow \infty[/tex] of [tex]{\int_{-N}^{N} f}[/tex] exists and is equal to the first equation.

Show moreover, that [tex]\lim_{N\rightarrow \infty[/tex] of [tex]{\int_{-N}^{N+1} f}[/tex] and [tex]\lim_{N\rightarrow \infty[/tex] of [tex]{\int_{-N^2}^{N} f}[/tex] both existThe attempt at a solution

It's taking me a really long time to write this out in LaTeX and it honestly looks worse than words when I finish it because I'm trying to learn it, so for now I"ll type in words.
My first step was split up the integrals. I have:

| Integral from 0->Inf of f MINUS Integral from 0->M of f | < 1/2E , and the correlating one for -Infinity to 0.

I then assumed an h(n) > M and a g(N) < -M for all N to come up with a generalization, and set up a large inequality and from that I believe by the triangle inequality I prove my result. But I"m unsure so if hopefully someone can check, that'd be great!

Thanks!
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
Because this is an area where different authors choose to set up their definitions in widely differing ways, it would be helpful if you gave your precise definition for [tex]\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} f[/tex] (and for [tex]\int_0^\infty f[/tex] if that's involved in the previous definition). Also indicate whether this is the Riemann or Lebesgue integral. That way we can avoid leading you down a path that doesn't work with your exact set of assumptions.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
3K
Replies
17
Views
3K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
2K
  • · Replies 15 ·
Replies
15
Views
2K
  • · Replies 16 ·
Replies
16
Views
4K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
3K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
3K
  • · Replies 0 ·
Replies
0
Views
4K