Proving $M$ is Cyclic: Simple $R$-Module & Isomorphism with Maximal Ideal $J$

  • Context: MHB 
  • Thread starter Thread starter mathmari
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Cyclic
Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving that a simple $R$-module $M$ is cyclic and isomorphic to the quotient ring $R/J$, where $J$ is a maximal ideal of the commutative ring $R$. Participants confirm that if $M$ is simple, then for any nonzero element $x \in M$, the $R$-submodule generated by $x$, denoted as $Rx$, must equal $M$, establishing that $M$ is cyclic. Furthermore, they discuss the necessity of demonstrating that the mapping $\phi: R \to M$ is a surjective $R$-homomorphism, with the kernel being the maximal ideal $J$, thereby confirming the isomorphism.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of simple $R$-modules
  • Knowledge of maximal ideals in commutative rings
  • Familiarity with homomorphisms and isomorphisms in module theory
  • Concept of cyclic modules
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of simple $R$-modules in more detail
  • Learn about the structure of maximal ideals in commutative rings
  • Explore the First Isomorphism Theorem for modules
  • Investigate examples of cyclic modules and their applications
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, algebraists, and students studying module theory, particularly those interested in the relationship between simple modules and maximal ideals in commutative rings.

mathmari
Gold Member
MHB
Messages
4,984
Reaction score
7
Hey! :o

Let $R$ be a commutative ring with unit and $M$ a $R$-module.

If $M$ is a simple $R$-module, i.e., the only $R$-submodule are $O$ and $M$, then $M$ is cyclic and isomorphic to $R/J$ where $J$ is a maximal ideal of $R$. Could you give me some hints how we could show that $M$ is cyclic? (Wondering)
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Hi mathmari,

Let $x$ be a nonzero element of $M$ and consider the $R$-submodule $Rx$. Use simplicity of $M$ to prove $M = Rx$. This also proves $M$ is cyclic.
 
Euge said:
Let $x$ be a nonzero element of $M$ and consider the $R$-submodule $Rx$. Use simplicity of $M$ to prove $M = Rx$. This also proves $M$ is cyclic.

Since $M$ is simple, we have that $Rx=O$ or $Rx=M$.
Since $x$ is nonzero and since we have that $x=1\cdot x\in Rx$, it cannot be that $Rx=O$, right? (Wondering)
Therefore, $Rx=M$.
That implies that $M$ is cyclic. We have that $R/J$ is a ring and since $J$ is a maximal ideal of $R$, we have that $R/J$ is a field.
To show that $M$ is isomorphic to $R/J$, do we have to consider the mapping $R\rightarrow M$ and show that it is an homomorphism and bijective and that the kernel is $J$ ? (Wondering)
 
mathmari said:
Since $M$ is simple, we have that $Rx=O$ or $Rx=M$.
Since $x$ is nonzero and since we have that $x=1\cdot x\in Rx$, it cannot be that $Rx=O$, right? (Wondering)
Therefore, $Rx=M$.
That implies that $M$ is cyclic.

Yes, that's correct.

We have that $R/J$ is a ring and since $J$ is a maximal ideal of $R$, we have that $R/J$ is a field.
To show that $M$ is isomorphic to $R/J$, do we have to consider the mapping $R\rightarrow M$ and show that it is an homomorphism and bijective and that the kernel is $J$ ? (Wondering)

Not exactly. The $J$ is not yet determined. Show that the mapping $R \to M$ is a surjective $R$-homomorphism. By the first isomorphism, you can then claim that $M$ is isomorphic to $R/J$ where $J$ is the kernel of that mapping. So $R/J$ is simple. Finally, show that that if $K$ is an ideal of $R$ such that $J \subset K \subsetneq R$, then $J = K$. That would prove that $J$ is a maximal ideal.
 
Euge said:
Show that the mapping $R \to M$ is a surjective $R$-homomorphism.

We consider the mapping $\phi: R\rightarrow M$ with $r\mapsto rm$.
We have that $\text{Im}\phi$ is a $R$-submodule of $M$. Since $M$ is simple it follows that $\text{Im}\phi=O$ or $\text{Im}\phi=M$.
To show that $\phi$ is surjective, we have to conclude that $\text{Im}\phi=M$, right? How could we conclude that? (Wondering)
 
mathmari said:
To show that $\phi$ is surjective, we have to conclude that $\text{Im}\phi=M$, right?

Yes, that's right.

How could we conclude that? (Wondering)

Using the fact that $Rx = M$.
 
Euge said:
Using the fact that $Rx = M$.

For $x=m$ we have that $M=Rm$, since $M$ is cyclic.
We have that $rm\in Rm$ and from the mapping we have that $rm\in \text{Im}\phi$, so $M=Rm\subseteq \text{Im}\phi$.
From that it follows that $\text{Im}\phi$ cannot be $O$. Therefore, it must be $\text{Im}\phi=M$.
Is this correct? (Wondering)
 
mathmari said:
For $x=m$ we have that $M=Rm$, since $M$ is cyclic.
We have that $rm\in Rm$ and from the mapping we have that $rm\in \text{Im}\phi$, so $M=Rm\subseteq \text{Im}\phi$.
From that it follows that $\text{Im}\phi$ cannot be $O$. Therefore, it must be $\text{Im}\phi=M$.
Is this correct? (Wondering)

No, $x$ was already chosen. You can't substitute $m$ for $x$.
 
Euge said:
No, $x$ was already chosen. You can't substitute $m$ for $x$.

So, at the mapping we choose $m=x$, so we have the mapping $r\mapsto rx$, or not? (Wondering)
 
  • #10
You're still saying $x = m$, which isn't right. The element $x$ was introduced in post #2. Since $Rx = M$, for every $m\in M$, there corresponds an $r\in R$ such that $rx = m$, that is, $\varphi(r) = m$. Hence, $\varphi$ is onto.
 
  • #11
Euge said:
Show that the mapping $R \to M$ is a surjective $R$-homomorphism. By the first isomorphism, you can then claim that $M$ is isomorphic to $R/J$ where $J$ is the kernel of that mapping. So $R/J$ is simple.

We have shown that $\phi$ is onto.

We have that $\phi$ is an homomorphism since:
$$\phi (r_1+r_2)=(r_1+r_2)m=r_1m+r_2m=\phi (r_1)+\phi (r_2) \\ \phi (ar)=arm=a\phi (r)$$ Now it is left to show that the kernel of that mapping is the maximal ideal $J$, or not? (Wondering)
How do we show that? (Wondering)
Euge said:
Finally, show that that if $K$ is an ideal of $R$ such that $J \subset K \subsetneq R$, then $J = K$. That would prove that $J$ is a maximal ideal.

Why do we have to prove that? Do we not know from the exercise statement that $J$ is a maximal ideal? (Wondering)
 
Last edited by a moderator:
  • #12
mathmari said:
Now it is left to show that the kernel of that mapping is the maximal ideal $J$, or not? (Wondering)
How do we show that? (Wondering)
No, since by definition (look at Post #4) $J$ is the kernel.

mathmari said:
Why do we have to prove that? Do we not know from the exercise statement that $J$ is a maximal ideal? (Wondering)
You are to prove the exercise statement, not assume it.
 
  • #13
Euge said:
Finally, show that that if $K$ is an ideal of $R$ such that $J \subset K \subsetneq R$, then $J = K$. That would prove that $J$ is a maximal ideal.

How could we show that? Using the property that $M$ is simple? (Wondering)
 
  • #14
mathmari said:
How could we show that? Using the property that $M$ is simple? (Wondering)
Yes, that's right.
 
  • #15
Euge said:
Yes, that's right.

How exactly can we do that? I got stuck right now... Could you give me a hint? (Wondering)
 
  • #16
Let $K$ be an ideal of $R$ such that $J\subset K \subsetneq R$. Then $K/J$ is a submodule of $R/J$. Since $R/J$ is simple (since $M$ is simple), what can you say about $K/J$?
 
  • #17
Euge said:
Let $K$ be an ideal of $R$ such that $J\subset K \subsetneq R$. Then $K/J$ is a submodule of $R/J$. Since $R/J$ is simple (since $M$ is simple), what can you say about $K/J$?

We have that $K/J=O$ or $K/J=R/J$, but since $K\subsetneq R$ we have that $K/J=O$. Is this correct? (Wondering),
 
  • #18
Yes, that's absolutely right.
 
  • #19
Euge said:
Yes, that's absolutely right.

Does $K/J=O$ mean that $K=J$ ? (Wondering)
 
  • #20
Correct!
 
  • #21
Ok... Thank you very much for your help! (Smile)
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
1K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
991
Replies
9
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
1K
  • · Replies 31 ·
2
Replies
31
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K