Proving Normality of a Quotient Group: A Shortcut Method

  • Context: Graduate 
  • Thread starter Thread starter Hjensen
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Group quotient
Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving that if K/N is normal in G/N, then K is normal in G, where N is a normal subgroup of G. The user seeks a simplified proof for their upcoming exam, referencing the third isomorphism theorem and the need to show that for every k in K, gkg^{-1} is also in K. The conclusion drawn is that using the normality of K/N allows for the deduction that gkg^{-1} can be expressed as k' multiplied by an element of N, confirming that gkg^{-1} belongs to K.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of group theory concepts, specifically normal subgroups.
  • Familiarity with the third isomorphism theorem.
  • Knowledge of homomorphisms and their properties in group theory.
  • Ability to perform calculations in quotient groups.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the third isomorphism theorem in detail.
  • Learn about homomorphisms and their kernels in group theory.
  • Explore examples of normal subgroups and quotient groups.
  • Practice proving properties of normality in various group structures.
USEFUL FOR

Students preparing for exams in abstract algebra, particularly those focusing on group theory and normal subgroups, as well as educators teaching these concepts.

Hjensen
Messages
22
Reaction score
0
I have a question I need to resolve before my exam on thursday. It relates to the following result:

Let N be a normal subgroup of G, and let K be any subgroup of G containing N. Then K/N is a subgroup of G/N. Furthermore, K/N is normal in G/N if and only if K is normal in G.

The first part is rather simple, and half of the other statement is just from the third isomorphism theorem. What I want to prove is, that K/N normal in G/N implies that K is normal in G. I suppose I could define a homomorphism like

G\rightarrow G/N\rightarrow (G/N)/(K/N)

with kernel K. That just seems like a lot of work to prove something which is probably rather simple. If I have to go through this at my exam, I'd prefer not to spend much time on this particular result. Does anyone have an idea for a short proof?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
You need to prove for every k\in K that gkg^{-1}\in K.
But if we do the calculation in G/N, then we get by normality of K/N that

[gkg^{-1}]=[g][k][g]^{-1}\in K/N

By definition, this means that there is a k' in K and a n in N such that gkg^{-1}=k^\prime n. But N is a subset of K, thus gkg^{-1}\in K.
 
Last edited by a moderator:
Using the isomorphism theorems here seems like "killing a fly with a nuke" or whatever the saying is (although your idea of that homomorphism does seem interesting.) micromass seems to have covered the rest.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
1K
  • · Replies 13 ·
Replies
13
Views
1K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
673
  • · Replies 26 ·
Replies
26
Views
1K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
3K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 25 ·
Replies
25
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K