Proving Sigma Notation Equals Zero

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving that the sum of deviations from the mean, represented by the sigma notation \(\sum_{i=1}^n (x_i - \overline{x})\), equals zero. This involves understanding properties of sigma notation and the concept of the mean in statistics.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the manipulation of sigma notation and the properties of the mean. Questions arise regarding the independence of \(\overline{x}\) from the index \(i\) and the validity of assumptions made in the attempted solutions.

Discussion Status

Some participants have provided insights into the manipulation of the sigma notation and the implications of assuming certain equalities. There is an ongoing exploration of how to correctly approach the proof without assuming the conclusion.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the importance of not assuming the result they are trying to prove and emphasize the need to work solely with the left-hand side of the equation. There is a recognition of the need to clarify the role of constants in the summation.

bob1182006
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Homework Statement


Show:
\sum_{i=1}^n (x_i - \overline{x}) = 0


Homework Equations


Sigma notation


The Attempt at a Solution



\sum_{i=1}^n x_i - \sum_{i=1}^n \overline{x} = \sum_{i=1}^n x_i - \frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n \sum_{i=1}^n x_i = 0
\sum_{i=1}^n x_i = \frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n \sum_{i=1}^n x_i

By Inspection I know i need to show that:
\sum_{i=1}^n \frac{1}{n}=1

Since the LHS has no x_i how can i show that the sum will result in n/n =1?

Is it just:
\sum_{i=1}^n 1 = n?
 
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consider that \overline{x} is idependent of i therefore \sum_{i=1}^n\overline{x} simply equals n \overline{x}. Also IMPORTANT NOTE: In the second line of your attempted solution you use the fact that \sum_{i=1}^n (x_i - \overline{x}) = 0 how ever that's what you're trying to SHOW so you can't assume it's true. You have to work entirely on the LHS and get it equal to 0.
 
Ah, I get it now thanks a lot!

So on the first step it'd just be the n*xbar/n leaving only sum of x - sum of x which =0.

Thank You!
 
Err no it'd be
\sum_{i=1}^n (x_i - \overline{x}) = 0
\sum_{i=1}^n x_i - n\overline{x} = 0
n \sum_{i=1}^n \frac{x_i}{n} - n\overline{x} = 0

n\overline{x} - n\overline{x} = 0

which gives you zero... hope he comes back to read that.
 
ah okay, I was expanding the xbar so there would be 2 equal sums being subrated which would just =0.

\sum_{i=1}^n x_i - n \frac{1}{n} \sum_{j=1}^n x_j = 0

since n/n =1, and both sums start and end at the same place they are both equal and thus will give 0 as the answer.
 

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