Proving $\text{diam}(A)=\text{diam}(\overline A)$ for Metric Spaces

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the equality of the diameters of a set \( A \) and its closure \( \overline{A} \) within a metric space \( (X,d) \). Participants explore the definitions of diameter and the implications of sequences converging within the closure.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant states the definition of diameter as \( \text{diam}(A) = \sup_{x,y \in A} d(x,y) \) and expresses uncertainty about how to start the proof.
  • Another participant agrees with the initial approach and suggests showing that \( d(x_n, y_n) \to d(x, y) \) as \( n \to \infty \), leading to the conclusion that \( d(x, y) \leq \text{diam}(A) \).
  • A participant notes that since \( A \subset \overline{A} \), it follows that \( \text{diam}(A) \leq \text{diam}(\overline{A}) \), contributing to the argument for the proof.
  • There is a clarification regarding the continuity of the distance function, suggesting that this property aids in showing the convergence of distances.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree on the steps needed to approach the proof, but there is no consensus on the completeness of the argument or the final conclusion, as some details remain to be clarified.

Contextual Notes

There are unresolved aspects regarding the continuity of the distance function and the implications of convergence that may affect the proof's rigor.

Ubistvo
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Let $A\subset X$ for $(X,d)$ metric space, then prove that $\text{diam}(A)=\text{diam}(\overline A).$
I know that $\text{diam}(A)=\displaystyle\sup_{x,y\in A}d(x,y),$ but I don't see how to start the proof.

The thing I have is to let $\text{diam}(\overline A)=\displaystyle\sup_{x,y\in \overline A}d(x,y),$ so for $x,y\in \overline A,$ there exists sequences $x_n$ and $y_n$ such that $x_n\to x$ and $y_n\to y,$ but I don't know if I'm on the right track.
 
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Ubistvo said:
Let $A\subset X$ for $(X,d)$ metric space, then prove that $\text{diam}(A)=\text{diam}(\overline A).$
I know that $\text{diam}(A)=\displaystyle\sup_{x,y\in A}d(x,y),$ but I don't see how to start the proof.

The thing I have is to let $\text{diam}(\overline A)=\displaystyle\sup_{x,y\in \overline A}d(x,y),$ so for $x,y\in \overline A,$ there exists sequences $x_n$ and $y_n$ such that $x_n\to x$ and $y_n\to y,$ but I don't know if I'm on the right track.
Yes, that is the way to start. You then need to show that $d(x_n,y_n)\to d(x,y)$. But $d(x_n,y_n)\leqslant \text{diam}(A)$ for all $n$, hence $d(x,y)\leqslant \text{diam}(A)$. That holds for all $x,y\in \overline A$, so $\text{diam}(\overline A)\leqslant \text{diam}(A)$. The reverse inequality is obvious.
 
Ah, so since $A\subset \overline A,$ then obviously $\text{diam}(A)\le\text{diam}(\overline A)$ and the result follows.

Thanks Opalg, you're very helpful!
 
Opalg said:
You then need to show that $d(x_n,y_n)\to d(x,y)$. But $d(x_n,y_n)\leqslant \text{diam}(A)$ for all $n$, hence $d(x,y)\leqslant \text{diam}(A)$.
Okay, I read this a little bit fast and I want to clarify some stuff: showing $d(x_n,y_n)\to d(x,y)$ follows because $d(x,y)$ is continuous, hence the result follows right? Now since $d(x_n,y_n)\leqslant \text{diam}(A)$ for all $n,$ as $n\to\infty$ we have $d(x,y)\le \text{diam}(A),$ and the rest follows.

Is that how you did it?
 

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