Proving $\text{diam}(A)=\text{diam}(\overline A)$ for Metric Spaces

  • Context: MHB 
  • Thread starter Thread starter Ubistvo
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Metric
Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on proving that the diameter of a set \( A \) in a metric space \( (X,d) \) is equal to the diameter of its closure \( \overline{A} \). The diameter is defined as \( \text{diam}(A) = \sup_{x,y \in A} d(x,y) \) and \( \text{diam}(\overline{A}) = \sup_{x,y \in \overline{A}} d(x,y) \). The proof involves showing that for sequences \( x_n \to x \) and \( y_n \to y \) in \( \overline{A} \), the distance \( d(x_n, y_n) \) converges to \( d(x, y) \), leading to the conclusion that \( \text{diam}(\overline{A}) \leq \text{diam}(A) \) and \( \text{diam}(A) \leq \text{diam}(\overline{A}) \).

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of metric spaces and the concept of diameter.
  • Familiarity with the definition of closure in topology.
  • Knowledge of convergence of sequences in metric spaces.
  • Basic properties of continuous functions, particularly in relation to distances.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of closure in metric spaces.
  • Learn about the continuity of distance functions in metric spaces.
  • Explore examples of metric spaces to see the application of diameter and closure.
  • Investigate the implications of the triangle inequality in proving properties of diameters.
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, students of topology, and anyone studying metric spaces who seeks to understand the relationship between a set and its closure in terms of diameters.

Ubistvo
Messages
10
Reaction score
0
Let $A\subset X$ for $(X,d)$ metric space, then prove that $\text{diam}(A)=\text{diam}(\overline A).$
I know that $\text{diam}(A)=\displaystyle\sup_{x,y\in A}d(x,y),$ but I don't see how to start the proof.

The thing I have is to let $\text{diam}(\overline A)=\displaystyle\sup_{x,y\in \overline A}d(x,y),$ so for $x,y\in \overline A,$ there exists sequences $x_n$ and $y_n$ such that $x_n\to x$ and $y_n\to y,$ but I don't know if I'm on the right track.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Ubistvo said:
Let $A\subset X$ for $(X,d)$ metric space, then prove that $\text{diam}(A)=\text{diam}(\overline A).$
I know that $\text{diam}(A)=\displaystyle\sup_{x,y\in A}d(x,y),$ but I don't see how to start the proof.

The thing I have is to let $\text{diam}(\overline A)=\displaystyle\sup_{x,y\in \overline A}d(x,y),$ so for $x,y\in \overline A,$ there exists sequences $x_n$ and $y_n$ such that $x_n\to x$ and $y_n\to y,$ but I don't know if I'm on the right track.
Yes, that is the way to start. You then need to show that $d(x_n,y_n)\to d(x,y)$. But $d(x_n,y_n)\leqslant \text{diam}(A)$ for all $n$, hence $d(x,y)\leqslant \text{diam}(A)$. That holds for all $x,y\in \overline A$, so $\text{diam}(\overline A)\leqslant \text{diam}(A)$. The reverse inequality is obvious.
 
Ah, so since $A\subset \overline A,$ then obviously $\text{diam}(A)\le\text{diam}(\overline A)$ and the result follows.

Thanks Opalg, you're very helpful!
 
Opalg said:
You then need to show that $d(x_n,y_n)\to d(x,y)$. But $d(x_n,y_n)\leqslant \text{diam}(A)$ for all $n$, hence $d(x,y)\leqslant \text{diam}(A)$.
Okay, I read this a little bit fast and I want to clarify some stuff: showing $d(x_n,y_n)\to d(x,y)$ follows because $d(x,y)$ is continuous, hence the result follows right? Now since $d(x_n,y_n)\leqslant \text{diam}(A)$ for all $n,$ as $n\to\infty$ we have $d(x,y)\le \text{diam}(A),$ and the rest follows.

Is that how you did it?
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
3K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
3K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 17 ·
Replies
17
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
3K