Proving that for nilpotent A, A+I is invertible

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Suppose A is nilpotent, i.e. [tex]A^k=0[/tex], [tex]k>0[/tex]. Show that [tex]A+I[/tex] is invertible.

Here's my go at it... although I'm unsure about step marked with asterisks... is it ok? I'm not sure how to show that it's true for sure.

Contrapositive: Suppose [tex]A+I[/tex] isn't invertible. Then [tex](A+I)X =0[/tex] has a non-zero solution, say [tex]X = X_0[/tex].
Then

[tex](A+I)X_0=0[/tex]

[tex]AX_0+X_0=0[/tex]

[tex]A^kX_0 +A^{k-1}X_0=0[/tex]

If [tex]A^k=0[/tex] then [tex]A^{k-1}X_0=0[/tex]... but [tex]X_0[/tex] is not a solution of [tex]A^{k-1}X=0[/tex].************

Hence, [tex]A[/tex] must not nilpotent, QED

Thanks
 
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Identity said:
but [tex]X_0[/tex] is not a solution of [tex]A^{k-1}X=0[/tex].************

Why?
 
Ok... I was bluffing. But I don't know how else to proceed!

I just assumed that since [tex]X_0[/tex] was the solution of one equation it couldn't solve another different equation.
 
It helps to gather some intuition from the one dimensional case here.

What is the inverse of (1+x) when x is small (x is a real number)?
 
If you mean multiplicative inverse isn't it

[tex]\frac{1}{1+x} = 1-x+x^2-...[/tex]

Can this be used for matrices too...?

EDIT: Heh, I guess it can, thanks office_shredder
 
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Of course you have to be worried about convergence, but in the nilpotent case that's not a big deal
 
I am a little slow, so could someone please humor me: just using 1/(1 + x) = 1 - x + x^2 - ...
and seeing x as A and 1 as I, isn't it apparent that this series converges since it is geometric and can be easily calculated? At what point does the nilpotency of A matter, and how can you use it in proof using the mentioned series?
 
For some integer power k, Ak = 0 (the zero matrix).

1/(1 + x) in the reals corresponds to (I + A)-1.
 
dmatador said:
and seeing x as A and 1 as I, isn't it apparent that this series converges since it is geometric and can be easily calculated? At what point does the nilpotency of A matter, and how can you use it in proof using the mentioned series?

If A is just a real number and A=2, the series doesn't converge. The mere fact it is geometric isn't enough; you need your matrix to somehow be "small enough". What exactly small enough is is a lot less obvious for matrices than for real numbers, but if a matrix is nilpotent it qualifies
 
[tex](A+I)v=0[/tex]

[tex]Av=-v[/tex]

[tex]A^2v=v[/tex]

[tex]\dots[/tex]

[tex]A^kv=(-)^{k+1}v=0[/tex]

[tex]v=0[/tex]

[tex]v=0[/tex] is the only vector in [tex]\textrm{Ker}(A+I)[/tex]

[tex]A+I[/tex] is invertible.
 
vigvig said:
[tex]Exp(X) = X+Id[/tex]

Its not true. If X^k=0

[tex]e^X=Id+A+A^2/2+\dots A^{k-1}/(k-1)![/tex]
 
Petr Mugver said:
Its not true. If X^k=0

[tex]e^X=Id+A+A^2/2+\dots A^{k-1}/(k-1)![/tex]

First, X^k = 0 is equivalent to being nilpotent. Second, you may want to replace all your As by Xs, but you are right. Sometimes you do get Exp(X)=X+id but not always. I forgot you could have something like a Heisenberg matrix where exponentiation puts ones on the diagonal but does alter one entry.
 
Suppose (I+A) is not invertible. Then there exists a vector v such that (I+A)v = 0.

Then v=-Av. Then -1 is an eigenvalue which is a contradiction since A is nilpotent i.e. all eigenvalues are zero.