Proving the Cauchy Sequence of (An)

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SUMMARY

The sequence \( (A_n) = \left(1 + \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} + \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}} + \ldots + \frac{1}{\sqrt{n}} - 2\sqrt{n}\right) \) is proven to be Cauchy by demonstrating its convergence. By defining the function \( f(x) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{x}} \) and establishing that \( \sum_{j=1}^{n} \frac{1}{\sqrt{j}} \geq \int_1^n \frac{1}{\sqrt{x}}dx \), a lower bound is created. The application of the monotone convergence theorem further supports the conclusion that the sequence converges, thus fulfilling the criteria for being a Cauchy sequence.

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hypermonkey2
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How could i show that the sequence
(An)= (1+(1/sqrt(2))+(1/Sqrt(3))+...+(1/sqrt(n))-2sqrt(n))) is Cauchy?
Thanks in advance!
 
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hypermonkey2 said:
How could i show that the sequence
(An)= (1+(1/sqrt(2))+(1/Sqrt(3))+...+(1/sqrt(n))-2sqrt(n))) is Cauchy?
Thanks in advance!

You need to show it is convergent.
Define [tex]f(x) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{x}}[/tex]. Now confirm that [tex]\sum_{j=1}^{n} \frac{1}{\sqrt{j}} \geq \int_1^n \frac{1}{\sqrt{x}}dx[/tex]. Use this to create a lower bound. Now apply the monotone theorem.
 
Hmm.. I was hoping that there would be a way to do this straight from the definition of a Cauchy sequence, without use of the notion of a definite integral.. thanks though! any other ideas?
 

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