Proving the Inequality (r^2+1)/(r)≤1 for rεQ+: A Simple Proof Help

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the inequality \((r^2+1)/(r) \leq 1\) for \(r \in \mathbb{Q}^+\) and its implication that \((r^2+2)/(r) \leq 2\). Participants are exploring the validity of various approaches to this proof and the relationships between different mathematical expressions involving \(r\).

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to prove the inequality by considering it true for all rational numbers, but questions the correctness of this approach. Other participants discuss the implications of their findings and question the validity of their methods, particularly regarding the manipulation of inequalities and the resulting graphs.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the problem, with some recognizing errors in their reasoning and others clarifying the relationships between different forms of the inequalities. There is an ongoing exploration of how to correctly interpret and manipulate the expressions involved.

Contextual Notes

Some participants express confusion over the manipulation of inequalities and the resulting graphical representations, indicating a need for clarity on the assumptions and definitions being used in the problem.

halo31
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simple proof help??

Homework Statement


The question states: Let rεQ+ Prove that if (r^2+1)/(r)≤1, then (r^2+2)/(r)≤2.
I wanted to prove it trivially by proving it is true for all Q(x). would this be a correct way?


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



Since (r^2+2)/(r)≤2= (r-1)^2+1≤ 0 it follows (r-1)^2≤-1 for all rεQ+. Therefore (r^2+2)/(r)≤2.
 
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The minimum of the function f(r) = (r^2 + 1)/r = r + (1/r) is f_min = 2, at r = 1. So, it is impossible to have f(r) <= 1 with r > 0.

RGV
 


I realized my mistake you can't prove it trivially. The way I proved it is wrong since (r-1)^2+1≥0 and not ≤0.
 


why am i getting different graphs when I graph r-(1\r)≤1 and r^2-r+1? I just multiplied through by r and moved everything around but still I am getting different equations.
 


halo31 said:
why am i getting different graphs when I graph r-(1\r)≤1 and r^2-r+1? I just multiplied through by r and moved everything around but still I am getting different equations.
What do you mean by "r-(1\r)≤1"? there is no "≤" in your second formula. If you dif mean r- (1/r)≤ 1, multiplying through by (positive) r gives r^2- 1≤ r and then "moving everything around" gives r^2- r- 1≤ 0, not r^2- r+ 1≤ 0.
 


for the r- (1/r)≤ 1 i get a hyperbola looking graph and r^2- r- 1≤ 0 I get a parobla with both being shaded.
 


halo31 said:
for the r- (1/r)≤ 1 i get a hyperbola looking graph and r^2- r- 1≤ 0 I get a parobla with both being shaded.

So, are we to understand that you really meant (r^2 - 1)/r ≤ 1? You never told us that.

Anyway, assuming that is the case, the inequalities 1 ≥ (r^2-1)/r = r - 1/r and r > 0 give a region along the real r-axis that you can find by plotting y = r - 1/r and seeing where the graph has y ≤ 1. It is true that the graph is like a hyerbola. As you say, you can also multiply through by r and get another inequality r^2 - r ≤ 1, so we can plot y = r^2 - r and see where y ≤ 1. As you rightly say, the graph is a parabola. However, the points r that satisfy these inequalities are exactly the same: both give an interval (0,r0), with the same r0.

RGV
 

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