Proving the Inequality: x^n < y^n

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the inequality \( x^n < y^n \) given the condition \( 0 < x < y \) for natural numbers \( n \). Participants explore different approaches to establish this inequality, including induction and axiomatic reasoning within the real number system.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants suggest using mathematical induction as a method to prove the inequality, discussing base cases and inductive steps. Others raise questions about the necessity of \( x \) and \( y \) being natural numbers and explore axiomatic proofs involving the properties of real numbers.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with various approaches being considered. Some participants express confusion regarding the assumptions about the nature of \( x \) and \( y \), while others provide guidance on using induction and axioms of the real number system. There is no explicit consensus on a single method, but multiple lines of reasoning are being explored.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the proof may not be limited to natural numbers, leading to discussions about the implications of this broader context. The original poster expresses uncertainty about how to structure their proof, indicating a need for clarification on the assumptions involved.

evry190
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0<x<y, prove x^n<y^n for n = natural numbers

I know its obvious, but I don't really know what to write to proove it...
 
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You should show your attempt at a solution. Perhaps try induction
 
well

P(1) is true (x<y)

and P(n) is true (x^n<y^n)

and p(n+1) is true (x^n+1 < y^n+1)
 
Induction is the best way to show this proof.
the way you should start would be:
Let P(n) be the statement 0<x<y then x^n<y^n where n=natural numbers

Then your base case is where x and y are the smallest natural numbers such that they apply to your restrictions, then of course you assume that P(n) is true for some n like you have and then just go through the steps to show that P(n+1) is true. You just need to beef up your proof. Your on the right track!=)
 
but x and y don't have to be natural numbers
im a bit confused : (
 
This is easily proved with axioms of the real number system. You can use multiplicative and order axioms to show that for z>0, xz<yx since, z(x-y)<0 for example. Then you can show that for 0<x<y and 0<u<v, 0<xu<yv. In the case that 0<x<y and u=x and y=v, x^2<y^2...x^n<y^n.
 
Induction seems like the best way to give a formal proof of the fact, but a sloppy and informal proof could show that x^n &lt; x^{n-1}y &lt; \dots &lt; xy^{n-1} &lt; y^n.
 
jgens said:
Induction seems like the best way to give a formal proof of the fact, but a sloppy and informal proof could show that x^n &lt; x^{n-1}y &lt; \dots &lt; xy^{n-1} &lt; y^n.

I don't see how that would work, I did not give a good way to prove this but I think the only way to do this properly (and formally) would be with axioms of the real number system. With induction it seems much less accessible since you have not only prove it for all n, but for real numbers x and y. I'd be interested to see how this works, since the choice of inequality at the start is comletely arbitrary isn't it? Maybe I'm missing something.
 

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