Proving the Infinity of C\B: A Contradiction Method

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving that the set difference C\B is infinite, where C is an infinite set and B is a finite set. Participants are exploring a proof by contradiction approach to establish this property.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the implications of assuming C\B is finite and the existence of bijective functions related to the sets involved. Questions arise about how to mathematically express the idea that removing a finite number of elements from an infinite set still results in an infinite set.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants providing insights and questioning the use of finite properties of set B. Some guidance has been offered regarding the construction of bijective functions to support the proof.

Contextual Notes

There is an emphasis on the need to utilize the finiteness of set B in the reasoning process. Participants are also considering how to connect the properties of the bijective functions to reach a contradiction regarding the finiteness of set C.

Punkyc7
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If C is an infinite set and B is a finite set then C\B is an infinite set.

C\B means the complement of B relative to C


Ok so I was thinking of doing this by contradiction.

I have Assume C\B is a finite set. Then there exist a function[itex]\alpha[/itex] that is bijective from C\B to Nk for some k.

Now this is were I am stuck. Obviously if you have something that is infinite and you take away some finite number of thigs is still going to be infinite but how do you write that mathmatically?
 
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Hi Punkyc7! :smile:
Punkyc7 said:
I have Assume C\B is a finite set. Then there exist a function[itex]\alpha[/itex] that is bijective from C\B to Nk for some k.

You haven't yet used the fact that B is finite, and so also has a bijective function. :wink:
 
so I would say something like there exist a a function[itex]\beta[/itex] that is bijective to Nl for some l.

Now how does that lead you to say c is finite for the contradiction?
Can you say there exist a function[itex]\chi[/itex] that is bijective to N(k-l) which would imply c is finite [itex]\rightarrow\leftarrow[/itex]

Does that work?
 
Hi Punkyc7! :smile:

(just got up :zzz: …)

yes, if you can use the first two bijective functions to define a third bijective function, that will prove it. :smile:
 

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