Proving the Limit: ((e^h)-1)/h = 1 as h → 0

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The limit as h approaches 0 of ((e^h)-1)/h equals 1 can be proven using the definition of the mathematical constant e. The discussion highlights that while L'Hôpital's Rule can yield the answer, it is not suitable for this proof since the limit itself is essential for determining the derivative of e^x. Instead, the proof can be constructed using the series expansion of e^h or the limit definition of e as (1 + 1/n)^n as n approaches infinity.

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can somebody explain to me how to prove this:

the limit, as h approaches 0, of ((e^h)-1)/h equals 1.

sorry about the typing, idk how else to get it on here...
 
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Do you want a real proof? Or just how you get the answer?

use L'h rule you get e^h/1 take the limit and you get 1

but as for a formal proof, I'm to tired to think lol.
 
l'hospital's rule is not a way to do this because to do that one usually has to know the derivative of e^x, but this limit is, itself, needed in order to figure out this derivative. So for a better proof try using the definition of e, this is not particularly hard if you use the definition of e as the limit (1+h)^(1/h) as h approaches zero.
 
can u explain it a lil further? what do you mean by the definition of e?
 
yhsbboy08 said:
can u explain it a lil further? what do you mean by the definition of e?

Can you explain it to me? What do you mean when you use e? It is obviously a number, but usually it is defined in some way when one is first introduced to it, in your course or textbook or whatever how is it defined?
 
I think he wants you to look at it this way: e^h=\sum_{j=0}^\infty\frac{h^j}{j!}=1+h+\frac{h^2}{2!} ++++ Now plug that into your original equation.
 
Last edited:
robert Ihnot said:
I think he wants you to look at it this way: e^h=\sum_{j=0}^\infty\frac{h^j}{j!}=1+h+\frac{h^2}{2!} ++++ Now plug that into your original equation.

Actually I was aiming for e= the limit as n approaches infinity of [1+(1/n))]^n which is equivalent to the limit as h approaches 0 of (1+h)^(1/h)
 
Well, regardless, if you can make that work out to something like: 1+1+(1-h)/2! +(1-h)(1-2h)/3!+++ all you arrive at as h goes to zero is the value for e, not the value for e^h.

Now when I took the calculus, I believe e^x was defined as lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} (1+x/n)^n
 
robert Ihnot said:
Well, regardless, if you can make that work out to something like: 1+1+(1-h)/2! +(1-h)(1-2h)/3!+++ all you arrive at as h goes to zero is the value for e, not the value for e^h.

All you need is the value of e though.
 
  • #10
You mean \frac{[(1+h)^{1/h}]^h-1}{h}?
 
Last edited:
  • #11
robert Ihnot said:
You mean \frac{[(1+h)^{1/h}]^h-1}{h}?

Exactly.
 

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