MHB Proving the Limit of an Infinite Sum

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The limit of the infinite sum is proven by showing that the expression converges to zero as n approaches infinity. The key step involves bounding the summation using the binomial coefficient and establishing that it is less than or equal to a term that tends to zero. Specifically, the expression is shown to be less than or equal to M^n/n!, where M is a constant dependent on |x - a|. Since M is non-negative, the limit of M^n/n! as n approaches infinity is zero. Thus, by the squeeze theorem, the limit of the original sum also converges to zero.
sarrah1
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Prove that$\lim_{{n}\to{\infty}}\sum_{j=0}^{n} {n \choose j} \frac{{(x-a)}^{n+j}}{(n+j) !} = 0 $
thanks
Sarrah
 
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Hello again Sarrah,

To solve this problem, it suffices to show that

$$\lim_{n\to \infty} \sum_{j = 0}^n \binom{n}{j}\frac{|x - a|^{n+j}}{(n+j)!} = 0.$$

To this end, let $f_n(x;a)$ be the summation expression. Then

$$0 \le f_n(x;a) \le \frac{|x - a|^n}{n!}\sum_{j = 0}^n \binom{n}{j}|x - a|^j = \frac{M^n}{n!},$$

where $M = |x - a|(1 + |x - a|)$. Since $M \ge 0$, $\lim\limits_{n\to \infty} \frac{M^n}{n!} = 0$. Hence, by the squeeze theorem, $\lim\limits_{n\to\infty} f_n(x;a) = 0$.
 
Dear Euge

Always there when i am in need of help
very grateful
sarrah
 
There are probably loads of proofs of this online, but I do not want to cheat. Here is my attempt: Convexity says that $$f(\lambda a + (1-\lambda)b) \leq \lambda f(a) + (1-\lambda) f(b)$$ $$f(b + \lambda(a-b)) \leq f(b) + \lambda (f(a) - f(b))$$ We know from the intermediate value theorem that there exists a ##c \in (b,a)## such that $$\frac{f(a) - f(b)}{a-b} = f'(c).$$ Hence $$f(b + \lambda(a-b)) \leq f(b) + \lambda (a - b) f'(c))$$ $$\frac{f(b + \lambda(a-b)) - f(b)}{\lambda(a-b)}...

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