sarrah1
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Prove that$\lim_{{n}\to{\infty}}\sum_{j=0}^{n} {n \choose j} \frac{{(x-a)}^{n+j}}{(n+j) !} = 0 $
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Sarrah
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Sarrah
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The limit of the infinite sum is proven as follows: $\lim_{{n}\to{\infty}}\sum_{j=0}^{n} {n \choose j} \frac{{(x-a)}^{n+j}}{(n+j) !} = 0$. The proof utilizes the squeeze theorem, demonstrating that the summation expression $f_n(x;a)$ is bounded above by $\frac{M^n}{n!}$, where $M = |x - a|(1 + |x - a|)$. As $n$ approaches infinity, $\frac{M^n}{n!}$ converges to zero, leading to the conclusion that $\lim\limits_{n\to\infty} f_n(x;a) = 0$.
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