Proving the preimage of a singleton under f is a singleton for all y

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving that if the preimage of a singleton under a function \( f: X \to Y \) is a singleton for all \( y \in Y \), then \( f \) is a bijection. The key definitions include the preimage \( f^{-1}(B) = \{ x \in X : f(x) \in B \} \) and the requirement that both surjectivity and injectivity must be established for \( f \) to be a bijection. Participants emphasize the importance of clearly defining these properties and the implications of the preimage being a singleton.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of functions and mappings in set theory
  • Familiarity with the concepts of bijection, surjectivity, and injectivity
  • Knowledge of preimages in the context of functions
  • Basic proof techniques in mathematics
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the definitions and properties of bijections in detail
  • Learn how to prove surjectivity and injectivity for functions
  • Explore examples of preimages in various mathematical contexts
  • Practice constructing proofs involving function properties and preimages
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Mathematics students, particularly those studying abstract algebra or real analysis, as well as educators looking to clarify concepts related to functions and their properties.

cbarker1
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Homework Statement
Let #f:X \to Y# be a function. Show that if #f^{-1}({y})# is a singleton for all #y \in Y#.
Relevant Equations
Definition of Preimage is #f^{-1}(B)={ x\in X: f(x) \in B}# where B is a subset of Y.
#f^{-1}({y})={x}#
Dear Everyone,

I have some trouble how to start the proof of this statement. I need to prove the preimage of the singleton under f is the subset of singleton of x and vice versus. My attempt is this:Given y.

So we know that definition of the preimage is when all #x# is in #X# , then #f(x) \in B#.I am lost after these facts.

Thank for any assistance,

Cbarker1
 
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cbarker1 said:
Homework Statement:: Let #f:X \to Y# be a function. Show that if #f^{-1}({y})# is a singleton for all #y \in Y#.
Relevant Equations:: Definition of Preimage is #f^{-1}(B)={ x\in X: f(x) \in B}# where B is a subset of Y.
#f^{-1}({y})={x}#

Dear Everyone,

I have some trouble how to start the proof of this statement.

I'm not surprised. What is the full statement? Show if ... then?
What if I map the entire set ##X## onto a single point ##y\in Y##?

cbarker1 said:
I need to prove the preimage of the singleton under f is the subset of singleton of x and vice versus. My attempt is this:Given y.

So we know that definition of the preimage is when all #x# is in #X# , then #f(x) \in B#.I am lost after these facts.

Thank for any assistance,

Cbarker1
 
fresh_42 said:
I'm not surprised. What is the full statement? Show if ... then?
What if I map the entire set ##X## onto a single point ##y\in Y##?
The professor was typing quickly and forget then statement. If #f^{-1}({y})# is a singleton for all #y \in Y#, then #f# is bijection.
 
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cbarker1 said:
The professor was typing quickly and forget then statement. If #f^{-1}({y})# is a singleton for all #y \in Y#, then #f# is bijection.
What two things do you have to show for ##f## to be a bijection?
 
Surjectivity and interjectivity
 
cbarker1 said:
Surjectivity and interjectivity
Surjectivity and injectivity, yes. But what does that mean, what do you have to check?
 
cbarker1 said:
Surjectivity and interjectivity
Let's see you prove those.
 

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