Proving the Theorem: (b,c)=1 implies (a,bc)=(a,b)(a,c) in Number Theory

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving a theorem in number theory that states if (b,c)=1, then (a,bc)=(a,b)(a,c) for integers a, b, and c. Participants explore the implications of the theorem and the necessary conditions for its proof.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the definitions of gcd and the implications of coprimality. They explore the relationships between the integers a, b, and c, and consider the role of prime factorization in the proof. Some participants question the use of certain theorems and the uniqueness of prime factorization.

Discussion Status

The discussion includes various lines of reasoning and attempts to clarify the proof structure. Some participants provide insights into the relationships between the gcd values and prime factors, while others express uncertainty about their mathematical notation and the completeness of their arguments. There is no explicit consensus on the proof's validity yet, but several productive directions are being explored.

Contextual Notes

Participants mention constraints related to previously unproven theorems and the challenge of expressing mathematical notation in the forum. There is an acknowledgment of the complexity involved in the proof process.

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Homework Statement


Let a,b,c be integers. If (b,c)=1, then (a,bc)=(a,b)(a,c)

Homework Equations


This is difficult to answer because some theorems that we haven't proven yet, we can't use.

The Attempt at a Solution


Let g=(a,b) and h=(a,c), g and h are integers.
That means g|a and g|b, h|a and h|c.
That means:
a=gk, for some integer k
b=gq, for some integer q
a=hp for some integer p
c=ht for some integer t.

Multiply b and c together to get bc=(a,b)(a,c)qt. Then (a,bc)= (gk, (a,b)(a,c)qt), but that's as far as I got.
 
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Sometimes it is just easier to think what things mean. Suppose that d divides a and bc. Think about the prime factors of d. Can you split them into two types? (Or is uniqueness of prime factorisation something you can't use?)
 
Yeah, we can use uniqueness of prime factorization. We proved it last month, so that's why we can use it. I don't know how to do correct mathematical notation on the computer here, so hopefully you'll understand what I'm typing.

So d=(a,bc). d=(p1^r1)(p2^r2)(p3^r3)... or we can say d=(2^r2)(3^r3)(5^r5)... But I don't see how that's going to help me.
 
So you know that gcd(a,b) is the product of the primes that divide a and b (with the right powers), similarly for gcd(a,c). And b and c are coprime so no primes divide both of them. Do you see where this is going?
 
Theorem: If (b,c)=1, then (a,bc)=(a,b)(a,c).

Let g=(a,b) and h=(a,c), g and h are integers.
That means g|a and g|b, h|a and h|c.
Therefore:
b=qg, for some integer q.
c=th for some integer t.
g|b and h|c, and (b,c)=1, so (g,h)=1.
Therefore a=pgh, for some integer p.
(a,b)=g => (a,b)/g=1 => (pgh,qg)/g=1 => g(ph,q)/g=1 => (ph,q)=1 => (p,q)=1
(a,c)=h => (a,c)/h=1 => (pgh,th)/h=1 => h(pg,t)/h=1 => (pg,t)=1 => (p,t)=1
Therefore (p,qt)=1
(a,bc)=(pgh,qgth)=gh(p,qt)=gh*1=gh=(a,b)(a,c)
Therefore (a,bc)=(a,b)(a,c)
Q.E.D.

I've never done work like this before, so I'm sure I have several form issues, but I went ahead and showed as much of my thought process as I could in hopes that you understand. To the best of my knowledge, this proves the theorem, but if I took any liberties, please, feel free to correct me.
 

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