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Suppose we have a source of polarization-entangled photons, that fires pairs of photons in opposite directions at two detectors with orientation-adjustable polarizationfilters in front of them. Obviously, there is a correlation between the orientation of the respective filters and the joint detection correlation. Equally obvious is that the measured correlation is cos

So, in my eyes this seems to suggest that the

Does the fact that

NOTE: It seems to me a relation between space (orientation of the filters) and time (the moment of detection yes/no), in relation to quantization (that we get a correlation in the first place).

^{2}(β-α), with α and β the angles of the respective filters.So, in my eyes this seems to suggest that the

*distribution*of the detection of the photons at either side gets at least partly influenced, or even determined, by the orientation of the filters or the quantitative value of the correlation (cos^{2}(β-α)). Mind you,__the distribution__of the detections! This can happen at the one side, the other side, or both sides, we don't know.Does the fact that

*the distribution*of the detections gets consequently and lawfully 'affected' not suggest that the detections are not completely random, but rather pseudorandom? That is, to consistently constitute a certain correlation between the detections at both sides, we have to have*more*than 'pure' random distributions at each end?NOTE: It seems to me a relation between space (orientation of the filters) and time (the moment of detection yes/no), in relation to quantization (that we get a correlation in the first place).

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