Quanta of massive vector fields

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quantumfireball
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Are the W+,W- and Z0 the field quanta of the massive charged vector fields?
ie Proca fields
 
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"Proca" fields are massive, spin-1 bosons. These objects are not unique. W and Z bosons are examples of these things. So is the rho meson in hadron physics. They are each their own separate Proca field.
 
but hadrons are not fundamental
but thanks for clearing the doubt regarding w bosons
 
olgranpappy said:
They are massive and they are gauge fields (electroweak force). but the Z0 is not charged.


yes but Z0 field can be written as a linear combination of W+ and W- fields
like in scalar fields right?to get a real valued field
 
what I mean by my above post is that "Proca" has nothing to do with "fundamental" - it's just the Lagrangian for a massive, spin-1 particle. The deuteron, for example, can be described by a proca field, as long as you're not interested in the substructure of the deuteron (ex: problems in atomic or molecular physics)!
 
quantumfireball said:
yes but Z0 field can be written as a linear combination of W+ and W- fields
like in scalar fields right?to get a real valued field

NO! The Z boson is NOT a linear combination of the charged W bosons! It is its own thing.
 
wait a minute this is getting a bit confusing in nuclear physics the pions are described by complex scalar fields and over there the neutral pion is decribed by the field 1/2*(phi+phi*),i think i read this in JJ Sakurai advanced QM
Plz confirm
 
quantumfireball said:
wait a minute this is getting a bit confusing in nuclear physics the pions are described by complex scalar fields and over there the neutral pion is decribed by the field 1/2*(phi+phi*),i think i read this in JJ Sakurai advanced QM
Plz confirm

You are mis-informed! The neutral pion is not related to the charged pions - it is a linearly independent scalar field.

I think you're getting confused with the following: the 3 pions form an isospin-1 field (3 components), call them [itex]\pi_1,\pi_2,\pi_3[/itex]. now you can write:

[tex]\pi^{\pm}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}(\pi_1\pm i\pi_2)[/tex]

while [itex]\pi^0 = \pi_3[/itex]. Here the sign corresponds to the charge.

Now for the W bosons, you can also write [itex]W^\pm\propto(W_1\pm iW_2)[/itex] while the Z-boson is related to [itex]W_3[/itex], although the Z boson also has hypercharge so it's more complicated than the [itex]\pi^0[/itex].

Does that help?
 
Also, in the quark model, remember that the charged pions are (u-dbar) and (d-ubar), while the neutral pion is (u-ubar)+(d-dbar) - so these are not the same thing!
 
thanks a lot belchman
i know i was a confused