Quantum mechanics, free particle normalization question

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the normalization of a wave function for a free particle in quantum mechanics, specifically the wave function ψ(x,0) = Ae^(-a|x|), where A and a are positive constants. Participants are exploring the correct limits for integration when normalizing the wave function.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the necessity of splitting the integral for normalization due to divergence when integrating from -∞ to ∞. There are questions regarding why the integral can be evaluated from 0 to ∞ instead.

Discussion Status

Some participants have offered insights into the nature of the integral, suggesting that it is not divergent due to the absolute value in the exponent, and that the function is even, allowing for integration from 0 to ∞ followed by doubling the result. There is a recognition of differing interpretations regarding the evaluation of the integral.

Contextual Notes

Participants reference external resources for integral evaluation and improper integrals, indicating a reliance on additional materials to clarify the normalization process.

Jdraper
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Homework Statement



A free particle has the initial wave function

ψ(x,0)=Ae^(-a|x|)

Where A and a are positive real constants.

a) Normalize ψ(x,0)



Homework Equations



1= ∫|ψ|^2 dx

The Attempt at a Solution



I attempted to normalize using 1= ∫|ψ|^2 dx from -∞ to ∞. When doing this i obtained

1=(A^2)∫e^(-2a|x|) dx from -∞ to ∞. doing this integral between these limits i get 0 as the value of the integral, which is obviously wrong.

I looked up the answer online as this is a problem from Griffiths, introduction to quantum mechanics. (problem 2.21 in the link)

http://www.thebestfriend.org/wp-content/uploads/IntroductiontoQuantumMechanics2thEdition.pdf

The solution on there says you integrate from 0 to ∞, this is then my question, why do you integrate from 0 to ∞ instead of from -∞ to ∞?

Thanks, any help would be appreciated.

John
 
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Last edited:
I think I get it, is it like the integral of x^3 from -1 to 1 = 0? I'm guessing that's why the factor of 2 appears in the model answer. Anyway thank you, I believe I get it now.
 
Wait! :eek:

It's not a divergent integral - notice the absolute value sign in the exponent.

Since it's an even function that's being integrated, you can integrate from 0 to \infty and then double the answer.
 
Jdraper said:

Homework Statement



A free particle has the initial wave function

ψ(x,0)=Ae^(-a|x|)

Where A and a are positive real constants.

a) Normalize ψ(x,0)



Homework Equations



1= ∫|ψ|^2 dx

The Attempt at a Solution



I attempted to normalize using 1= ∫|ψ|^2 dx from -∞ to ∞. When doing this i obtained

1=(A^2)∫e^(-2a|x|) dx from -∞ to ∞. doing this integral between these limits i get 0 as the value of the integral, which is obviously wrong.

I looked up the answer online as this is a problem from Griffiths, introduction to quantum mechanics. (problem 2.21 in the link)

http://www.thebestfriend.org/wp-content/uploads/IntroductiontoQuantumMechanics2thEdition.pdf

The solution on there says you integrate from 0 to ∞, this is then my question, why do you integrate from 0 to ∞ instead of from -∞ to ∞?

Thanks, any help would be appreciated.

John
You didn't evaluate the integral correctly if you got 0. You shouldn't get different answers which depend on the method you choose to integrate. If you're getting inconsistent results, it means you're making a mistake.
 

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