Quantum well, time evolution of probabilities

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on the time evolution of probabilities for an electron in a quantum well of length L, starting from the initial state \(\psi(x,0) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{L}} (\sin(\frac{\pi x}{L}) + \sin(\frac{2\pi x}{L}))\). The energies of the stationary states are defined as \(E_1 = \frac{\pi^2 \hbar^2}{2mL^2}\) and \(E_2 = 4E_1\). The probability of finding the electron in the interval (0, L/2) at time \(t = \frac{\pi \hbar}{E_1}\) is calculated to be 0.076. Additionally, a correction regarding the unit of the wavefunction is noted, emphasizing that it should be \(m^{-0.5}\) for a one-dimensional system.

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frerk
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hey,
this thread might be a bit longer, but I have already calculated everything and I am quiet sure that it is right :)
Just need someone who confirms me or not :)


1. Homework Statement


Time evolution of probabilities. An electron inside a quantum well of length L is at time t = 0 in the state
\psi(x,0) =\frac{1}{ \sqrt{L} } ( \sin( \frac{\pi x}{ L} ) + \sin( \frac{2 \pi x}{L} ))

Outside the well \psi(x,0) = 0. The state \psi(x,0) is thus a superposition of two stationary states\psi_{1}(x) \ and \ \psi_{2}(x) with the energies E_{1} = \frac { \pi^2\hbar^2 }{2mL^2} \ and \ E_{2} = 4 E_{1}

Calculate the porbability that the electron is in the interval (0, L/2) at the time t = \pi \hbar / E_{1}

The Attempt at a Solution



So, that is the homework, now I show you how i get a result:

\psi(x,t) = \psi(x,0) e^{-iHt/\hbar} [ \psi_1(x,0) + \psi_2(x,0) ] e^{-iHt/\hbar} =\psi_1(x,0)e^{-iE_1 t/\hbar } + \psi_2(x,0)e^{-iE_2 t/\hbar }

\Rightarrow | \psi(x,t)|^2 = |\psi_1(x,0)e^{-iE_1 t/\hbar } + \psi_2(x,0)e^{-iE_2 t/\hbar }|^2
= | \psi_1(x,0)|^2 + |\psi_2(x,0)|^2 + \psi_1(x,0)^* \psi_2(x,0) e^{i(E_1 - E_2) t / \hbar } + \psi_2(x,0)^* \psi_1(x,0) e^{i ( E_2 -E_1) t / \hbar}
Now we put this into the integral:
<br /> \int_0^b \! | \psi(x,t)|^2 \, d x where b = L/2 and we geht the result
0,5 + \frac{2}{3\pi} e^{i(E_1 E_2)t/\hbar} + \frac{2}{3\pi} e^{-i(E_1 E_2)t/\hbar}
Now I insert: t = \pi\hbar/E_1 = \pi \hbar 2mL^2 / \pi^2 \hbar^2 = 2mL^2/(\pi\hbar)
E_1 = \pi^2\hbar^2 / (2mL^2)
E_2 = 4E_1 = 2\pi^2 \hbar^2 / (mL^2)

And after doing that, we find out that the probability that the electron in in the interval (0,L/2) for the specific time is 0,076.

Thank you :)
 
Last edited:
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Is the wavefunction at ##t=0## what you are already given? It has an incorrect unit, for 1D system like this the unit of the wavefunction should be ##m^{-0.5}##.
 
blue_leaf77 said:
Is the wavefunction at ##t=0## what you are already given? It has an incorrect unit, for 1D system like this the unit of the wavefunction should be ##m^{-0.5}##.

Yes it is already given. I forgot the root over the "L". Sorry for that, i corrected it.
 

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