Probability of Negative Value in Sz 1/2 Spin System w/ Lambda 1 & 2

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SUMMARY

The probability of measuring a negative value in a Sz 1/2 spin system is definitively zero. Given the parameters lambda 1 = hbar/2 and lambda 2 = -hbar/2, the wavefunction represented in bra-ket notation as 3N|1> + i4N|2> indicates that probabilities, which are derived from the squared amplitudes of the state coefficients, must always be non-negative. The eigenvalues of the spin operator σz are ±hbar/2, and the probability of measuring the spin-down state corresponds to the squared amplitude of the respective coefficient in the wavefunction.

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ellenb899
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Homework Statement
Will the probability to provide a negative value of a Sz 1/2 spin system always be 0? If lambda 1 = hbar/2 and lambda 2 = -h bar/2 ?
Relevant Equations
P1(Sz = hbar/2) = |c1|^2
Will the probability to provide a negative value of a Sz 1/2 spin system always be 0? If lambda 1 = hbar/2 and lambda 2 = -h bar/2 ?
 
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The question is not clear. Can you post the full statement?

Also, PhysicsForums requires you to provide an attempt at a solution.
 
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Given particle in spin state: wavefunction in bra-ket notation = 3N|1> + i4N|2> (1/2 spin state in z axis)

Q. What is the probability that a measurement of Sz will provide negative value?

My attempt at solution is using the equation I provided, a negative value cannot be obtained as it must be squared. Is this correct?
 
Probabilities are always positive or zero, but it has nothing to do with the sign of what will be measured.

In other words, the question asks for the probability of measuring the spin as spin-down.

ellenbaker said:
Given particle in spin state: wavefunction in bra-ket notation = 3N|1> + i4N|2> (1/2 spin state in z axis)
I don't understand what the states ##\ket{1}## and ##\ket{2}## correspond to.

I guess you will also have to figure out what the value of ##N## is.
 
For a spin 1/2 the eigenvalues of ##\sigma_z## are ##\pm \hbar/2##. A general state is
$$|\psi \rangle = a |\hbar/2 \rangle+ b|-\hbar/2 \rangle, \quad |a|^2+|b|^2=1.$$
The probability to find ##+\hbar/2## when measuring ##\sigma_z## is
$$P(+\hbar/2)=|a|^2,$$
and the probability to find ##-\hbar/2## is
$$P(-\hbar/2)=|b|^2.$$
So what's the question?

PS: For writing readable math, it's most convenient to use LaTeX. Just check the "LaTeX Guide" link below the entry form:

https://www.physicsforums.com/help/latexhelp/
 

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