Question about a proof of the converse of Thales' theorem

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    Euclidean geometry
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SUMMARY

The forum discussion centers on Eddie Woo's video series proving Thales' theorem and its converse. A specific point of confusion arises at 2:15, where Woo examines the equation (x–u)(x–v) = 0. This equation is crucial as it establishes the conditions under which the converse of Thales' theorem holds true, specifically identifying the points of intersection on a circle defined by the theorem.

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murshid_islam
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Homework Statement
Proof of the converse of Thales' theorem
Relevant Equations
(x–u)(x–v) = 0
I was watching this series of videos of Eddie Woo proving Thales' theorem and its converse. I didn't understand this part (at 2:15) where he considered (x–u)(x–v) = 0. He later used the result he got from considering that. But why consider it in the first place?

 

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