Question about different statements of Picard Theorem

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the equivalence of statements in the context of the Big Picard Theorem. Specifically, it establishes that if a function \( f \) is holomorphic on \( \mathbb{D} \setminus \{0\} \) and maps to \( \mathbb{C} \setminus \{0, 1\} \), then \( f \) has a removable singularity at \( 0 \). The user has successfully proven the implications \( a) \implies b) \implies c) \) but seeks guidance on proving \( c) \implies a) \) or \( b) \). The discussion also questions the mathematical correctness of stating these points as equivalent.

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I want to prove following (Big Picard Theorem forms):\
Theorem.
The followings are equivalent:\
a) If ##f \in H(\mathbb{D}\setminus\{0\})## and ##f(\mathbb{D}') \subset \mathbb{C} \setminus \{0, 1\}##, then ##f## has a pole of an removable singularity at ##0##.\
b) Let ##\Omega \subset \mathbb{C}## is a open subset, ##f : \Omega \to \mathbb{C}## is holomorphic and ##z_0 \in \mathbb{C}##. If ##f## has an essential singularity at ##z_0##, then, with at most one exception, ##f## attains every complex value infinitely many times;\
c) Let ##f : \mathbb{C} \to \mathbb{C}## a entire function which is not polynomial. Then, with at most one exception, ##f## attains every complex value infinitely many times;



I have proved that a) ##\implies## b) ##\implies## c) and that b) ##\implies## a) but I don't know how to start proving that c) implies a) or b). And another thing: Is mathematically correct to say that those points are equivalent? Thanks!!
 
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