Graduate Question about different statements of Picard Theorem

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The discussion centers on proving the equivalence of different forms of the Big Picard Theorem. The user has established that statement a) implies b) and b) implies c), but is uncertain about how to prove that c) leads back to a) or b). Additionally, the user questions the mathematical correctness of claiming these statements are equivalent. The conversation highlights the complexities of proving these relationships within the context of holomorphic functions and their singularities. Clarifying these equivalences is essential for a deeper understanding of the theorem's implications.
MathLearner123
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I want to prove following (Big Picard Theorem forms):\
Theorem.
The followings are equivalent:\
a) If ##f \in H(\mathbb{D}\setminus\{0\})## and ##f(\mathbb{D}') \subset \mathbb{C} \setminus \{0, 1\}##, then ##f## has a pole of an removable singularity at ##0##.\
b) Let ##\Omega \subset \mathbb{C}## is a open subset, ##f : \Omega \to \mathbb{C}## is holomorphic and ##z_0 \in \mathbb{C}##. If ##f## has an essential singularity at ##z_0##, then, with at most one exception, ##f## attains every complex value infinitely many times;\
c) Let ##f : \mathbb{C} \to \mathbb{C}## a entire function which is not polynomial. Then, with at most one exception, ##f## attains every complex value infinitely many times;



I have proved that a) ##\implies## b) ##\implies## c) and that b) ##\implies## a) but I don't know how to start proving that c) implies a) or b). And another thing: Is mathematically correct to say that those points are equivalent? Thanks!!
 
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We all know the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold uses open sets and homeomorphisms onto the image as open set in ##\mathbb R^n##. It should be possible to reformulate the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold using closed sets on the manifold's topology and on ##\mathbb R^n## ? I'm positive for this. Perhaps the definition of smooth manifold would be problematic, though.

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