This is a question i just got in the coursera material.
Euclid's proof that there are infinitely many primes uses the fact that if p1…,pn are the first n primes, then the number N=(p1...pn)+1 is prime. True or False.
The answer was False
I answered true and i THINK i understand why i was wrong.
Am i correct in assuming that because p is undefined that p1...pn, etc could be any number. Any number + 1 could be composite or prime and thats why its false. There is no PROOF.
As always, thank you.