- #1

- 11

- 0

## Homework Statement

This is a question i just got in the coursera material.

Euclid's proof that there are infinitely many primes uses the fact that if p1…,pn are the first n primes, then the number N=(p1...pn)+1 is prime. True or False.

The answer was False

I answered true and i THINK i understand why i was wrong.

Am i correct in assuming that because p is undefined that p1...pn, etc could be any number. Any number + 1 could be composite or prime and thats why its false. There is no PROOF.

As always, thank you.