Sorry if this sounds like a dumb question, but why is the effective value of a sine wave 0.707, as opposed to 0.637 which is the value generated by finding the definite integral over the domain [0,∏] divided length of the domain?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**

# Question about rms value of a sine wave

Have something to add?

- Similar discussions for: Question about rms value of a sine wave

Loading...

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**