Question on a particular integral property

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SUMMARY

The integral identity provided in Wald's book on general relativity, F(x)=F(a)+\int_{0}^{1}F'(t(x-a)+a)dt, is valid under specific interpretations of the derivative notation. The discussion clarifies that the formula holds true when F'(t(x-a) + a) is understood as the derivative of the function φ(t) = F(t(x-a) + a) evaluated at t. However, using standard notation where F' denotes the derivative of F at the point t(x-a) + a can lead to inaccuracies. The conversation also emphasizes the importance of the fundamental theorem of calculus in deriving this expression and its application in proving the Taylor series representation of smooth functions.

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I've been reading Wald's book on general relativity and in one of the questions at the end of chapter 2 he gives a hint which says to make use the following integral identity (for a smooth function in): F(x)=F(a)+\int_{0}^{1}F'(t(x-a)+a)dt
Is this result true simply because \int_{0}^{1}F'(t(x-a)+a)dt=F(t(x-a)+a)\bigg\vert_{t=0}^{t=1}=F(x)-F(a)
And so F(x)=F(a)+\int_{0}^{1}F'(t(x-a)+a)dt=F(a)+\left(F(x)-F(a)\right)
Or is there a deeper explanation to it?
I get that one can arrive at this expression by starting from the fundamental theorem of calculus and making a change of variables, but I'm unsure of what he's trying to say with it?!
 
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Nothing deeper- that's basically why it is true. As to "what he's trying to say with it", I suspect that depends on what he is try to do.
 
I should mention sloppy notation here. The formula is true if ##F'(t(x-a) + a)## is understood as derivative of the function ##\phi##, ##\phi(t) = F(t(x-a) + a)## (evaluated at ##t##). However, in the standard notation ##F'(t(x-a) + a)## means the derivative of ##F## evaluated at the point ##t(x-a) + a## , and in this case the formula is false (consider say ##F(x) =x##, ##a=0##).
 
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Yes, I admit it is a bit sloppy, I was just copying over the notation that Wald gives it in. I'm assuming he meant F'(t(x-a) +a)=\frac{dF(t(x-a)+a)}{dt}?!

He gives it in a question in which he asks the reader to prove by induction that for any smooth function F : \mathbb{R} ^{n} \rightarrow \mathbb{R} ^{n} one can express it as the following power series (i. e. a Taylor series) F(x) =F(a) +\sum_{i=1}^{\infty}(x^{i}-a^{i})H_{i}(x), where x=(x^{1},\ldots,x^{n}) and a=(a^{1},\ldots,a^{n}), and in particular, \frac{\partial F} {\partial x^{i}} \bigg\vert_{x=a} =H_{i} (a). He gives a hint that for n=1, you should use the "known" identity I gave in my first post. I can do the first step in the induction process, by starting from the fundamental theorem of calculus and making a change of variables, but I'm not entirely sure what this is showing. I'm also unsure how to proceed after making the induction step?!
 
You just should apply the formula $$\phi(1) = \phi(0) +\int_0^1 \phi'(t) dt$$ (the fundamental theorem of calculus) to $$\phi(t) = F(a+(x-a)t). $$
 
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